MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- Which Article empowers the President to consult the Supreme Court?
(A) Article 132
(B) Article 143
(C) Article 142
(D) Article 144
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 143 empowers the President to consult the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact of public importance or regarding treaties and agreements. The Supreme Court’s opinion is advisory and non-binding, except in cases of pre-1950 agreements, ensuring the President can seek judicial clarity on complex constitutional or legal matters. - Who is the constitutional head of the Indian Union?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Lok Sabha Speaker
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The President is the constitutional head of the Indian Union under Article 52. As the nominal executive, the President exercises powers on the advice of the Council of Ministers, symbolizing national unity and performing ceremonial, legislative, and emergency functions, while the Prime Minister is the real executive head. - How many members are nominated to the Lok Sabha by the President (before 104th Amendment)?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) None now
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Before the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2019, Article 331 allowed the President to nominate two members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian community if they were inadequately represented. The amendment, effective from January 25, 2020, abolished this provision, so no such nominations occur now. - Which Fundamental Right is available to Indian citizens only?
(A) Equality before law
(B) Freedom of religion
(C) Protection in respect of conviction
(D) Freedom of speech and expression
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article 19(1)(a) is available only to Indian citizens. Other rights under Article 19, like assembly and association, are also citizen-exclusive. In contrast, Equality before law (Article 14), Freedom of religion (Article 25), and Protection in respect of conviction (Article 20) extend to both citizens and non-citizens. - The principle of ‘Separation of Powers’ is not strictly followed in –
(A) USA
(B) India
(C) France
(D) Germany
Answer: (B)
Explanation: In India, the principle of Separation of Powers is not strictly followed due to the parliamentary system, where the executive (Council of Ministers) is drawn from the legislature (Parliament) and is accountable to it. This overlaps powers, unlike the USA’s presidential system, which maintains a stricter separation among the legislature, executive, and judiciary. - Which Article deals with equality of opportunity in public employment?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment for all citizens, prohibiting discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. It allows reservations for backward classes and ensures fair access to government jobs, complementing the broader equality provisions under Articles 14 and 15. - Directive Principles of State Policy are –
(A) Justiciable
(B) Enforceable by courts
(C) Non-enforceable
(D) Part of Preamble
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) under Part IV (Articles 36–51) are non-enforceable by courts, as they are guiding principles for the state to achieve social, economic, and political justice. Though non-justiciable, they are fundamental to governance, influencing laws and policies to promote welfare and equality. - The anti-defection law was added by which Constitutional Amendment?
(A) 44th
(B) 52nd
(C) 61st
(D) 73rd
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 introduced the anti-defection law by adding the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution. It disqualifies elected representatives for defection (e.g., switching parties or voting against party directives), ensuring political stability and discouraging opportunistic party-hopping. - Which of the following is a State subject?
(A) Defence
(B) Police
(C) Foreign Affairs
(D) Banking
Answer: (B)
Explanation: As per the Seventh Schedule, police is a subject under the State List, giving state legislatures exclusive authority to legislate on law enforcement and public order. Defence, foreign affairs, and banking are Union List subjects, reflecting the Union’s control over matters of national importance. - Which of the following bodies does not have a constitutional status?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Commission for SCs
(D) Planning Commission
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Planning Commission, established in 1950 by a Cabinet resolution, lacked constitutional status and was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015. In contrast, the Election Commission (Article 324), Finance Commission (Article 280), and National Commission for Scheduled Castes (Article 338) are constitutional bodies with defined roles. - The first Vice-President of India was –
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Zakir Husain
(C) B.D. Jatti
(D) Gopal Swarup Pathak
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the first Vice-President of India, serving from 1952 to 1962. A distinguished philosopher and statesman, he later became the second President (1962–1967). Elected under Article 66, the Vice-President also serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. - Article 17 of the Constitution provides for the abolition of –
(A) Untouchability
(B) Titles
(C) Child labour
(D) Manual scavenging
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability and prohibits its practice in any form, making it a punishable offense. This Fundamental Right under the Right to Equality aims to eradicate social discrimination and promote dignity, with laws like the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, enforcing its implementation. - Which committee recommended the three-tier Panchayati Raj system?
(A) Balwantrai Mehta
(B) Ashok Mehta
(C) G.V.K. Rao
(D) L.M. Singhvi
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the three-tier Panchayati Raj system (village, block, and district levels) to promote decentralized governance and rural development. Its recommendations laid the foundation for the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which formalized Panchayati Raj Institutions. - Which Article deals with protection of interests of minorities?
(A) Article 29
(B) Article 30
(C) Article 28
(D) Both A and B
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 29 protects the cultural and educational rights of minorities by allowing them to preserve their language, script, or culture, while Article 30 grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions. Together, these Fundamental Rights ensure minority communities’ autonomy in cultural and educational matters. - The concept of Fundamental Duties was taken from the Constitution of –
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Ireland
(D) France
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The concept of Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Soviet (Russian) Constitution, which emphasized citizens’ obligations to the state. Added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 under Article 51A, these duties promote civic responsibility and national unity, balancing Fundamental Rights. - Which Amendment made Fundamental Duties part of the Constitution?
(A) 40th
(B) 42nd
(C) 44th
(D) 46th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Fundamental Duties under Article 51A, listing 10 duties (later increased to 11 by the 86th Amendment). These non-justiciable duties, such as respecting the Constitution and promoting harmony, encourage citizens to contribute to national development and social cohesion. - The Attorney General of India is appointed by –
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Vice-President
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 76, the Attorney General of India, the Union’s highest law officer, is appointed by the President. The Attorney General advises the government on legal matters, represents it in courts, and performs duties assigned by the President, serving at the President’s pleasure. - Which Article empowers Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more states?
(A) Article 214
(B) Article 231
(C) Article 233
(D) Article 237
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 231 empowers Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more states or Union territories. For example, the Guwahati High Court serves multiple northeastern states. This provision optimizes judicial resources and ensures uniform justice delivery in smaller or contiguous regions. - The total number of recognized national parties in India (as of 2024) is –
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 9
Answer: (C)
Explanation: As of 2024, the Election Commission recognizes seven national parties: Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), Indian National Congress (INC), Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI(M)), Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP), National People’s Party (NPP), Aam Aadmi Party (AAP), and All India Trinamool Congress (AITC). Recognition is based on electoral performance under the Election Symbols Order, 1968. - The power to issue ordinances by the Governor is mentioned under –
(A) Article 200
(B) Article 201
(C) Article 213
(D) Article 214
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session, provided immediate action is necessary. These ordinances have the same force as state laws but must be approved by the legislature within six weeks of reassembly, mirroring the President’s ordinance power under Article 123. - The Right to Property is now a –
(A) Natural right
(B) Fundamental Right
(C) Legal right
(D) Moral right
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Right to Property, originally a Fundamental Right under Article 31, was removed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 and reclassified as a legal right under Article 300A. This change allows the state to acquire property with compensation, facilitating land reforms while retaining legal protections. - Which body advises the President on financial distribution between Centre and States?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) Economic Advisory Council
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Finance Commission, constituted every five years under Article 280, advises the President on the distribution of financial resources between the Centre and states, including tax shares and grants-in-aid. Unlike NITI Aayog (a policy think tank) or the Planning Commission (now defunct), it has a constitutional mandate for fiscal federalism. - The Supreme Court of India is a –
(A) Federal court only
(B) Court of record
(C) Advisory court
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Supreme Court is a federal court resolving Centre-state disputes, a court of record under Article 129 (its judgments are binding precedents), and an advisory court under Article 143 (providing opinions to the President). These roles make it the apex judicial body, safeguarding the Constitution and justice. - A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in –
(A) Lok Sabha only
(B) Rajya Sabha only
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) Legislative Assembly
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 368, a Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) and requires a special majority for passage. State legislatures cannot initiate amendments, though some provisions need ratification by half the states, ensuring a balanced amendment process. - The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court lies with –
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Parliament has the power to increase the number of Supreme Court judges under Article 124, as amended by the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act. The strength was raised to 34 (including the CJI) in 2019 to address case backlogs, reflecting Parliament’s legislative authority over judicial administration. - The fundamental right to form associations is enshrined in –
(A) Article 18
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 23
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Right to Form Associations or unions is enshrined in Article 19(1)(c), a Fundamental Right available to citizens only. It allows individuals to form groups for lawful purposes, subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(4) for public order or morality, promoting collective action and democratic participation. - The concept of Single Citizenship in India is borrowed from –
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) Australia
(D) Canada
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The concept of single citizenship, where all Indians have one national citizenship without state-specific citizenship, was borrowed from the United Kingdom. Enshrined in Part II (Articles 5–11), it promotes national unity, unlike the dual citizenship model in federal systems like the USA or Australia. - The minimum number of members required to form a new political party at the national level is –
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) Not fixed
(D) As per Election Commission guidelines
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Election Commission sets guidelines for registering a political party under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, but there is no fixed minimum number of members. A party must provide details like a constitution, office-bearers, and 100 signatories supporting its formation, with national status granted based on electoral performance. - Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Article 14 – Equality before law
(B) Article 15 – Protection against arrest
(C) Article 16 – Freedom of religion
(D) Article 17 – Right to Education
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 14 provides for equality before law and equal protection of laws. Incorrect pairs: Article 15 prohibits discrimination (not arrest protection), Article 16 ensures equality in public employment (not religion), and Article 17 abolishes untouchability (not education, which is under Article 21A). - The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by –
(A) President
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Governor
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 217, the Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state. This process ensures judicial independence and balances executive and judicial inputs, with the CJI’s opinion carrying significant weight. - The Inter-State Council is established under –
(A) Article 263
(B) Article 262
(C) Article 256
(D) Article 255
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 263 provides for the establishment of the Inter-State Council by the President to promote coordination between states and the Centre on matters of common interest. Constituted in 1990, it facilitates cooperative federalism by discussing policies, resolving disputes, and advising on Centre-state relations. - Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble?
(A) Sovereign
(B) Socialist
(C) Democratic
(D) Federal
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Preamble declares India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, and Democratic Republic. The term federal is not mentioned, though India’s federal structure is implicit in the Constitution’s division of powers. The absence of ‘federal’ reflects the emphasis on a ‘Union of States’ for national unity. - The ‘Swaraj Party’ was formed by –
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(D) B.R. Ambedkar
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Swaraj Party was formed in 1923 by Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das within the Indian National Congress to contest elections under the Government of India Act, 1919, and advocate for self-rule from within the colonial system. It aimed to obstruct British governance while pursuing dominion status. - The Lokpal Act was enacted in which year?
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was enacted in 2013 to establish an anti-corruption ombudsman (Lokpal) at the national level and Lokayuktas in states. Following decades of advocacy, including the Anna Hazare movement, it aims to investigate corruption allegations against public officials, enhancing transparency and accountability. - Which part of the Constitution contains Emergency Provisions?
(A) Part XVII
(B) Part XVIII
(C) Part XIX
(D) Part XX
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part XVIII (Articles 352–360) contains Emergency Provisions, including National Emergency (Article 352), President’s Rule (Article 356), and Financial Emergency (Article 360). These provisions allow the Union to assume extraordinary powers during crises, balancing national security with federal principles, subject to parliamentary oversight. - Who among the following was the first woman Speaker of Lok Sabha?
(A) Sumitra Mahajan
(B) Meira Kumar
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Sarojini Naidu
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Meira Kumar was the first woman Speaker of Lok Sabha, serving from 2009 to 2014 during the 15th Lok Sabha. Elected under Article 93, her tenure marked a historic milestone in gender representation, overseeing parliamentary proceedings with impartiality and strengthening democratic processes. - How many official languages are listed in the 8th Schedule?
(A) 21
(B) 22
(C) 23
(D) 24
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists 22 official languages recognized by the Constitution, including Hindi, Tamil, Telugu, and others, added through amendments (e.g., 21st, 71st, 92nd). These languages promote India’s linguistic diversity, with provisions for their development and use in official and cultural contexts. - The Election Commission is a –
(A) Statutory body
(B) Constitutional body
(C) Executive body
(D) Judicial body
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Election Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 324, responsible for conducting free and fair elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. Its autonomy ensures impartiality, distinguishing it from statutory or executive bodies. - Which Article provides for freedom to manage religious affairs?
(A) Article 25
(B) Article 26
(C) Article 27
(D) Article 28
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 26 guarantees the freedom to manage religious affairs, allowing religious denominations to establish and maintain institutions, manage their affairs, and own property, subject to public order, morality, and health. It complements Article 25 (individual religious freedom), ensuring collective religious autonomy. - Which of the following Articles is known as the ‘Right to Life’?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 22
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 21, known as the Right to Life, guarantees that no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except by procedure established by law. Judicial interpretations (e.g., Maneka Gandhi Case) have expanded it to include dignity, privacy, education, and health, making it a cornerstone of Fundamental Rights. - Which Article prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 15 prohibits discrimination by the state against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. It ensures equal access to public places and facilities, with provisions for affirmative action for disadvantaged groups, complementing the equality framework under Article 14. - What is the minimum strength of Legislative Assembly in a state?
(A) 40
(B) 50
(C) 60
(D) 70
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 170, the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly is 40 members, except for smaller states like Sikkim or Goa, where it may be lower. The maximum is 500, ensuring proportional representation while accommodating varying state populations within the constitutional framework. - Which part of the Constitution deals with the Union Executive?
(A) Part IV
(B) Part V
(C) Part VI
(D) Part VII
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part V (Articles 52–78) deals with the Union Executive, comprising the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, and Attorney General. It outlines their powers, functions, and responsibilities, establishing the framework for India’s parliamentary executive at the national level. - The President of India is elected by –
(A) People directly
(B) Members of Parliament
(C) Members of State Legislatures
(D) Electoral College
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 54, the President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of elected members of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and elected members of State Legislative Assemblies. This indirect election ensures representation of both Union and states, reflecting India’s federal structure. - Who among the following can remove the Vice-President of India?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 67, the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all members of the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. No impeachment is required, and the process, initiated by Parliament, ensures accountability while maintaining the Vice-President’s constitutional role. - Which state was the first to establish a Lokayukta?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Karnataka
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Maharashtra was the first state to establish a Lokayukta in 1971 under the Maharashtra Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act. The Lokayukta investigates corruption allegations against state public officials, inspired by the ombudsman concept, with other states later adopting similar institutions. - Which Article allows preventive detention?
(A) Article 20
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 22
(D) Article 23
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 22 provides for preventive detention, allowing the state to detain individuals without trial to prevent future offenses, subject to safeguards like informing detainees of grounds and providing an opportunity to make a representation. It balances security needs with individual rights, applicable to both citizens and non-citizens. - Which Article deals with prohibition of traffic in human beings?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 22
(C) Article 23
(D) Article 24
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 23, under the Right against Exploitation, prohibits traffic in human beings, forced labor, and begar (unpaid labor). Applicable to citizens and non-citizens, it empowers the state to enact laws like the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956, to combat exploitation and uphold human dignity. - How many members are nominated by the President to Rajya Sabha?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 14
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 80, the President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha for their distinguished contributions in fields like literature, science, art, or social service. These nominations enhance the upper house’s diversity, complementing the elected representatives from states and Union territories. - Which Article provides for a Finance Commission every five years?
(A) Article 270
(B) Article 275
(C) Article 280
(D) Article 282
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 280 mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and states, grants-in-aid, and other fiscal measures. This constitutional body ensures equitable financial federalism, supporting state development and fiscal stability.