MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- Who among the following appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 324, the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India. The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, ensuring that the Election Commission remains an independent body responsible for conducting free and fair elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. - Which writ is issued to prevent unlawful detention of a person?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo Warranto
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The writ of Habeas Corpus, issued under Articles 32 (Supreme Court) and 226 (High Courts), directs authorities to produce a detained person before the court to examine the legality of their detention. It protects personal liberty by preventing unlawful or arbitrary detention, ensuring that no individual is deprived of freedom without due process. - Which one of the following is considered a bulwark of personal freedom?
(A) Right to Property
(B) Right to Religion
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(D) Right to Form Associations
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Right to Constitutional Remedies under Article 32 is considered the bulwark of personal freedom, as it allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court directly to enforce their Fundamental Rights. Described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution, it empowers courts to issue writs, ensuring the protection of individual liberties against state violations. - The concept of ‘Basic Structure’ was introduced in which case?
(A) Golaknath Case
(B) Minerva Mills Case
(C) Kesavananda Bharati Case
(D) Berubari Case
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The concept of the Basic Structure of the Constitution was introduced in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973). The Supreme Court ruled that Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution under Article 368 is not absolute and cannot alter the Constitution’s basic features, such as judicial review, secularism, and federalism, ensuring its enduring framework. - Which Amendment is known as the ‘Mini-Constitution’?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 73rd Amendment
(D) 86th Amendment
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 is known as the ‘Mini-Constitution’ due to its extensive changes to the Constitution. It amended over 50 provisions, including the Preamble (adding ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’), Fundamental Duties, and Directive Principles, while strengthening the Union’s powers during the Emergency period, significantly reshaping the constitutional framework. - Who was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India?
(A) Ruma Pal
(B) Leila Seth
(C) Sujata Manohar
(D) Fathima Beevi
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Fathima Beevi became the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India in 1989. Appointed under Article 124, her historic appointment marked a significant milestone in gender representation in the judiciary, paving the way for greater diversity in India’s apex court. - Which Fundamental Right was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Education
(C) Right to Property
(D) Right to Work
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 introduced the Right to Education as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A, guaranteeing free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years. It also amended Article 45 to focus on early childhood care and added a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) for parents to ensure their children’s education. - Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18?
(A) 44th
(B) 52nd
(C) 61st
(D) 73rd
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 amended Article 326, lowering the voting age from 21 to 18 for elections to Parliament and state legislatures. This reform expanded democratic participation by including younger citizens, recognizing their political maturity and enhancing India’s electoral inclusivity. - In which part of the Constitution are the Directive Principles mentioned?
(A) Part II
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36–51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs). These non-justiciable guidelines direct the state to promote social, economic, and political justice, such as providing education, reducing inequality, and protecting the environment, shaping welfare-oriented governance despite not being enforceable in courts. - Which of the following was the first country to grant universal adult franchise?
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) New Zealand
(D) India
Answer: (C)
Explanation: New Zealand was the first country to grant universal adult franchise in 1893, allowing all adult citizens, including women, to vote in national elections. This progressive step preceded other democracies like the USA, UK, and India, which adopted universal suffrage later (India in 1950 with the Constitution’s commencement). - Which Amendment Act granted constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(A) 42nd
(B) 73rd
(C) 44th
(D) 52nd
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced Part IX (Articles 243–243O) and the 11th Schedule, granting constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions. It established a three-tier system of rural local governance, mandating regular elections, reservations, and devolution of 29 functions like agriculture and rural development, fostering decentralized democracy. - How many Fundamental Rights are provided in the Constitution?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Constitution provides six Fundamental Rights under Part III (Articles 12–29): Right to Equality (14–18), Right to Freedom (19–22), Right to Education (21-A), Right against Exploitation (23–24), Right to Freedom of Religion (25–28), and Right to Constitutional Remedies (32). The Right to Property was removed by the 44th Amendment, reducing the total to six. - The powers of the Election Commission are derived from which Article?
(A) Article 320
(B) Article 324
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 328
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 324 establishes the Election Commission and vests it with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. This article ensures the Commission’s autonomy to conduct free and fair elections, including preparing electoral rolls and enforcing the model code of conduct. - Which article deals with the definition of Money Bill?
(A) Article 110
(B) Article 112
(C) Article 113
(D) Article 117
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 110 defines a Money Bill as a bill dealing with taxation, government borrowing, expenditure, or appropriation of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India. Such bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha has limited powers to suggest amendments within 14 days, ensuring the lower house’s primacy in financial matters. - The idea of a written constitution was borrowed from which country?
(A) Britain
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) Ireland
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The concept of a written constitution, a single authoritative document outlining the structure and powers of government, was borrowed from the United States. Unlike Britain’s unwritten constitution based on conventions, the Indian Constitution, enacted in 1950, is a comprehensive written framework, incorporating features like judicial review and federalism inspired by the U.S. model. - The words ‘We the People of India’ in the Preamble signifies –
(A) Sovereignty of people
(B) Social equality
(C) Individual freedom
(D) Economic justice
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The phrase ‘We the People of India’ in the Preamble signifies the sovereignty of the people, emphasizing that the Constitution derives its authority from the citizens. It underscores India’s democratic foundation, where ultimate power rests with the people, who elect their representatives to govern through a republican framework. - The term ‘State’ as defined in Article 12 includes –
(A) Government and Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) Local authorities
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 12 defines the term ‘State’ for the purposes of Fundamental Rights enforcement, including the Government and Parliament of India, state governments and legislatures, local authorities (e.g., municipalities), and other authorities under government control. This broad definition ensures that all public entities are accountable for protecting Fundamental Rights. - Which Article provides for Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid?
(A) Article 38
(B) Article 39A
(C) Article 40
(D) Article 43
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 39A, added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, is a Directive Principle directing the state to ensure equal justice and provide free legal aid to citizens, particularly those unable to afford legal services. This promotes access to justice, aligning with the constitutional goal of reducing inequalities in legal representation. - Which Article provides that no child below 14 years shall be employed?
(A) Article 24
(B) Article 23
(C) Article 21A
(D) Article 39
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 24, under the Right against Exploitation, prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in factories, mines, or other hazardous occupations. This Fundamental Right protects children from exploitation and ensures their right to a safe and healthy childhood, complementing the Right to Education under Article 21A. - The power to dissolve the Lok Sabha rests with –
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker
(D) Council of Ministers
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 85, the President has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha, typically on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. Dissolution occurs before the completion of its five-year term to call for fresh elections or in cases of a loss of majority, ensuring a new mandate from the electorate. - Which among the following has been described as the ‘soul of the Constitution’?
(A) Preamble
(B) Article 32
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 19
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 32, which provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies, was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘soul of the Constitution’. It allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court directly to enforce Fundamental Rights through writs, ensuring that these rights are not merely theoretical but practically enforceable against state violations. - The residuary powers of legislation under Indian Constitution are vested in –
(A) State Legislature
(B) Union Parliament
(C) Both A and B
(D) President
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 248 and the Seventh Schedule, residuary powers of legislation (subjects not listed in the Union, State, or Concurrent Lists) are vested in the Union Parliament. This includes emerging areas like cybersecurity, ensuring that the Union has authority over matters of national significance in India’s federal structure. - The Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 has to be approved by the Parliament within –
(A) 1 month
(B) 2 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 3 months
Answer: (A)
Explanation: As per Article 352, a National Emergency proclamation must be approved by both houses of Parliament within one month from its issuance. This requirement, strengthened by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, ensures parliamentary oversight, preventing arbitrary extension of emergency powers and safeguarding democratic governance. - Which article deals with the freedom of religion?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 25
(D) Article 29
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 25 guarantees the Right to Freedom of Religion, allowing individuals to profess, practice, and propagate their religion, subject to public order, morality, and health. This Fundamental Right, available to both citizens and non-citizens, reflects India’s secular ethos, balancing individual freedom with societal harmony. - Which one of the following is not a federal feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) Supremacy of the Constitution
(C) Single Citizenship
(D) Division of Powers
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Federal features of the Indian Constitution include a written Constitution, supremacy of the Constitution, and division of powers (Seventh Schedule). Single citizenship, where all Indians have one national citizenship without state-specific citizenship, is a unitary feature, promoting national unity over federal divisions, unlike dual citizenship in the USA. - The High Court in India was first set up in –
(A) Delhi
(B) Bombay
(C) Calcutta
(D) Allahabad
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The first High Court in India was established in Calcutta in 1862 under the High Courts Act, 1861, during British rule. It served as the apex judicial authority for Bengal, followed by High Courts in Bombay and Madras. Post-independence, High Courts were reorganized under Article 214 to serve as state-level appellate courts. - In India, the Council of Ministers remains in office till it enjoys the support of –
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Judiciary
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 75, the Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. It remains in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha. A no-confidence motion passed by the Lok Sabha can lead to the government’s resignation, reflecting parliamentary accountability. - The Advocate General of a State is appointed by –
(A) Chief Minister
(B) President
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Justice
Answer: (C)
Explanation: As per Article 165, the Advocate General of a state, the highest law officer at the state level, is appointed by the Governor. The Advocate General advises the state government on legal matters and represents it in courts, serving at the Governor’s pleasure, akin to the Attorney General at the Union level. - The State List consists of how many subjects?
(A) 66
(B) 61
(C) 59
(D) 47
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule assigns 61 subjects to the State List (originally 66, reduced by amendments), over which state legislatures have exclusive legislative authority. These include agriculture, police, public health, and local government, reflecting the states’ autonomy in matters of regional importance within India’s federal framework. - Who can remove a judge of the Supreme Court?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice
(C) President with parliamentary approval
(D) Parliament
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 124(4), a Supreme Court judge can be removed by the President only after an address by both houses of Parliament, supported by a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting, with a majority of the total membership), on grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity. This rigorous process ensures judicial independence. - How many judges are there in the Supreme Court of India (excluding CJI)?
(A) 30
(B) 31
(C) 33
(D) 34
Answer: (C)
Explanation: As of June 2025, the Supreme Court of India has a sanctioned strength of 34 judges, including the Chief Justice of India (CJI). Excluding the CJI, there are 33 judges, as per the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2019, increased to handle the growing caseload and ensure timely justice delivery. - Which of the following Articles is associated with the Uniform Civil Code?
(A) Article 44
(B) Article 45
(C) Article 46
(D) Article 47
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 44, a Directive Principle, directs the state to endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) for all citizens, applicable to personal laws like marriage, divorce, and inheritance. Though non-justiciable, it aims to promote national integration and gender equality by standardizing civil laws across religious communities. - Who has the power to create or abolish the Legislative Council in a state?
(A) State Assembly
(B) Parliament
(C) President
(D) Governor
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 169, Parliament has the power to create or abolish a State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) by passing a law, provided the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution with a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting). This ensures a balance between state and Union authority in altering legislative structures. - Which Schedule contains provisions for administration of tribal areas?
(A) Fifth
(B) Sixth
(C) Seventh
(D) Ninth
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram through Autonomous District Councils. These councils have legislative, executive, and judicial powers over specified subjects, ensuring self-governance and protection of tribal culture and rights in these regions. - Which constitutional amendment lowered the age for voting to 18 years?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 61st
(D) 86th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 amended Article 326, reducing the voting age from 21 to 18 for elections to Parliament and state legislatures. This reform broadened the electorate, empowering younger citizens to participate in the democratic process and reflecting their growing political awareness. - Article 370 gave special status to –
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Nagaland
(C) Mizoram
(D) Sikkim
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 370 granted special status to Jammu & Kashmir, providing it with significant autonomy in internal affairs, except in defense, foreign affairs, and communications. However, in 2019, the article was effectively abrogated through a Presidential Order and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, integrating the state fully into India’s constitutional framework. - The Constitution of India describes India as –
(A) Union of States
(B) Federation of States
(C) Confederation
(D) Sovereign State
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 1 describes India as a Union of States, emphasizing a strong central authority within a federal framework. The term ‘Union’ signifies the indissoluble nature of the Indian federation, distinguishing it from a loose ‘federation’ or ‘confederation’ and reflecting the balance between national unity and state autonomy. - Which Fundamental Right is available to both citizens and non-citizens?
(A) Right to Freedom of Speech
(B) Right to Assemble
(C) Right to Equality before Law
(D) Right to Vote
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Right to Equality before Law under Article 14 is available to both citizens and non-citizens within India’s territory, ensuring equal protection under the law without discrimination. In contrast, rights like Freedom of Speech (Article 19) and Right to Assemble (Article 19) are exclusive to citizens, and the Right to Vote is limited to eligible citizens. - Which Article deals with protection of monuments and places of national importance?
(A) Article 49
(B) Article 48
(C) Article 51
(D) Article 50
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 49, a Directive Principle, directs the state to protect monuments, places, and objects of national or historical importance from destruction or export. This provision underscores the state’s responsibility to preserve India’s cultural heritage, complementing efforts by bodies like the Archaeological Survey of India. - Which Article deals with protection in respect of conviction for offenses?
(A) Article 20
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 22
(D) Article 23
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 20 provides protection in respect of conviction for offenses, including safeguards against retrospective criminal laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination. Available to both citizens and non-citizens, it ensures fair trial principles, protecting individuals from arbitrary prosecution and upholding the rule of law. - The oath of office to the President is administered by –
(A) Vice-President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 60, the oath of office to the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India or, in their absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court. This ceremonial act marks the President’s assumption of office as the constitutional head of state, ensuring adherence to constitutional duties. - The power to grant pardons is given to the President under –
(A) Article 71
(B) Article 72
(C) Article 73
(D) Article 74
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute sentences for offenses under Union jurisdiction, including court-martial and death sentences. This discretionary power is exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers, balancing justice with mercy. - Which of the following is not a method of constitutional amendment?
(A) By simple majority
(B) By special majority
(C) By referendum
(D) By special majority with states’ consent
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 368 outlines two methods for amending the Constitution: a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting, with over 50% of total membership) and, for certain provisions (e.g., federal structure), a special majority plus ratification by at least half the state legislatures. A simple majority is used for ordinary laws, not amendments, and a referendum is not provided for in India. - The final interpreter of the Constitution is –
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Supreme Court is the final interpreter of the Constitution, as established through its powers of judicial review under Articles 32 and 137. Its rulings on constitutional matters, such as in the Kesavananda Bharati Case, are binding, ensuring the Constitution’s supremacy and resolving disputes over its interpretation. - Which Article states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 20
(D) Article 21
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 21 guarantees that no person shall be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law. Expanded through judicial interpretations (e.g., Maneka Gandhi Case), it encompasses rights like dignity, privacy, and education, making it a cornerstone of Fundamental Rights for both citizens and non-citizens. - Who has the power to appoint a commission to examine the conditions of backward classes?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 340, the President has the power to appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes and recommend measures for their advancement. The National Commission for Backward Classes, established under this article, plays a key role in promoting affirmative action and social justice. - What is the minimum number of judges required to hear a Constitutional Bench?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Answer: (B)
Explanation: As per Article 145, a Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court, which hears cases involving substantial questions of constitutional law, must consist of at least five judges. This ensures a broader judicial consensus on critical issues like Fundamental Rights or constitutional amendments, enhancing the authority of the court’s decisions. - Which Article of the Constitution provides for amendment procedures?
(A) Article 365
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 371
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 368 outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution, requiring a special majority in both houses of Parliament (two-thirds of members present and voting, with over 50% of total membership) and, for certain provisions, ratification by at least half the state legislatures. This flexible yet rigorous process balances adaptability with stability. - How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Supreme Court, under Article 32, can issue five types of writs: Habeas Corpus (unlawful detention), Mandamus (compel public duty), Prohibition (prevent lower court overreach), Certiorari (review lower court decisions), and Quo Warranto (question authority of officeholder). These writs enforce Fundamental Rights and ensure judicial oversight. - The fundamental rights are enshrined in –
(A) Part II
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12–35) enshrines the Fundamental Rights, which include the Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, and Right to Constitutional Remedies. These justiciable rights protect individual liberties and ensure equality under the law.