MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- The number of subjects in the Union List is –
(A) 61
(B) 97
(C) 99
(D) 100
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution divides legislative powers between the Union and states into three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. The Union List currently contains 100 subjects (originally 97, increased by amendments) over which the Parliament has exclusive legislative authority. These include critical areas like defense, foreign affairs, banking, railways, and atomic energy, reflecting the Union’s dominance in matters of national importance. - Which Article of the Constitution defines the Union territories?
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 3
(D) Article 4
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 1 defines the territory of India, which comprises the states, Union territories, and other territories that may be acquired. It explicitly lists Union territories as part of India’s territory, alongside states. Unlike states, Union territories are directly administered by the Union government, with varying degrees of legislative autonomy, as seen in Delhi and Puducherry, which have partial state-like status. - Which amendment made the right to education a part of the Right to Life?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 86th
(D) 93rd
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 amended the Constitution to make the right to education a fundamental right under Article 21A, which guarantees free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years as part of the Right to Life under Article 21. This amendment also added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) for parents to provide education to their children and modified Article 45 to focus on early childhood care. - How many members are nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 15
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 80, the Rajya Sabha has a maximum strength of 250 members, of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India. These nominated members are individuals with special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, art, and social service, ensuring diverse representation in the Council of States alongside elected members from states and Union territories. - The first state in India to become a ‘Digital State’ was –
(A) Gujarat
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Karnataka
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Kerala was declared India’s first ‘Digital State’ in 2016 by the President of India, recognizing its achievements in digital infrastructure and e-governance. The state implemented initiatives like 100% e-literacy, widespread broadband connectivity, and digital services for governance, making it a pioneer in leveraging technology for public administration and citizen services. - Which of the following amendments gave constitutional status to municipalities?
(A) 72nd
(B) 73rd
(C) 74th
(D) 75th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced Part IX-A (Articles 243P to 243ZG) and the 12th Schedule, granting constitutional status to municipalities. This amendment established a framework for urban local bodies, mandating their structure, elections, and functions like urban planning, water supply, and public health, to promote decentralized governance in urban areas. - Which Fundamental Right was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(D) Right to Religion
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described the Right to Constitutional Remedies under Article 32 as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution. This right empowers citizens to approach the Supreme Court or High Courts to enforce their Fundamental Rights through writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, and certiorari. It ensures that Fundamental Rights are protected and enforceable, making it a cornerstone of constitutional justice. - The President must consult whom before appointing a judge to the Supreme Court?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 124, the President appoints Supreme Court judges after consulting the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and other judges as deemed necessary. This consultation process, strengthened by judicial rulings like the Second Judges Case (1993), ensures that the judiciary’s independence is maintained by involving the CJI in the appointment process, reflecting a collaborative approach between the executive and judiciary. - Which part of the Constitution deals with Tribunals?
(A) Part XIII
(B) Part XIV
(C) Part XIVA
(D) Part XV
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Part XIVA (Articles 323A and 323B), added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, deals with tribunals in India. Article 323A provides for administrative tribunals to adjudicate disputes related to public services, while Article 323B allows for tribunals on other matters like taxation and land reforms. These tribunals aim to provide specialized, speedy justice outside the traditional court system. - Which state has a unicameral legislature?
(A) Bihar
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Kerala
Answer: (D)
Explanation: A unicameral legislature consists of a single house, while a bicameral legislature has both an Assembly and a Council. Kerala has a unicameral legislature with only a Legislative Assembly, as per Article 168. In contrast, states like Bihar, Maharashtra, and Uttar Pradesh have bicameral legislatures, with both a Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council. - Which of the following is an eligibility condition for Vice-President of India?
(A) Must be a member of Parliament
(B) Should be over 25 years
(C) Should be qualified to be a Rajya Sabha member
(D) Should be a government servant
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 66, the Vice-President of India must be a citizen of India, at least 35 years old, and qualified to be elected as a member of the Rajya Sabha (as per Article 80). This includes not holding any office of profit and meeting other eligibility criteria for Rajya Sabha membership. The Vice-President does not need to be a sitting MP or a government servant. - The maximum strength of the Legislative Council is –
(A) 1/2 of Assembly
(B) 1/3 of Assembly
(C) 1/4 of Assembly
(D) 1/5 of Assembly
Answer: (B)
Explanation: As per Article 171, the maximum strength of a State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is one-third of the total strength of the State Legislative Assembly, but not less than 40 members. This ensures that the upper house remains smaller than the lower house, balancing representation while maintaining the Assembly’s primacy in state legislation. - Which article empowers the Parliament to make laws for implementing international agreements?
(A) Article 249
(B) Article 250
(C) Article 253
(D) Article 254
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of India to implement international agreements, treaties, or conventions, even if the subject falls under the State List. This provision ensures that India can fulfill its international obligations, such as trade agreements or environmental treaties, by enacting necessary legislation at the national level. - What is the minimum age for contesting elections to the Lok Sabha?
(A) 18 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 30 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 84, a candidate contesting elections to the Lok Sabha must be a citizen of India and at least 25 years old. This age requirement ensures that candidates have a certain level of maturity and experience to represent the people in the lower house of Parliament, with a higher age limit (30 years) for the Rajya Sabha. - How many times has the National Emergency been declared in India?
(A) Once
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) Four times
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A National Emergency under Article 352 has been declared in India three times: in 1962 (Indo-China War), 1971 (Indo-Pakistan War), and 1975 (internal disturbance). These emergencies allowed the Union government to exercise extraordinary powers, including suspending certain Fundamental Rights, to address national crises. No National Emergency has been declared since 1975 as of June 2025. - Which schedule deals with allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha?
(A) First Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Third Schedule
(D) Fourth Schedule
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution specifies the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha for each state and Union territory. It details the number of seats assigned based on population and other factors, ensuring proportional representation of states in the Council of States, with periodic adjustments due to delimitation or reorganization. - Which commission is responsible for delimitation of constituencies?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Delimitation Commission
(D) Finance Commission
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Delimitation Commission, established under the Delimitation Act, is responsible for redrawing the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies based on population changes, as per census data. This ensures fair representation and equal electoral weight. The Election Commission conducts elections but does not handle delimitation, which is a specialized task. - The State Election Commission supervises elections to –
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Panchayats and Municipalities
(D) State Assemblies
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The State Election Commission, established under Articles 243K and 243ZA, supervises, directs, and controls elections to Panchayats (73rd Amendment) and Municipalities (74th Amendment). It ensures free and fair elections for local bodies, while the Election Commission of India oversees elections to Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies. - Which amendment removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 52nd
(D) 61st
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights under Article 31 and reclassified it as a legal right under Article 300A. This change was made to facilitate land reforms and reduce legal challenges to property acquisition by the state, aligning with social and economic objectives. - Which of the following is not a source of Indian Constitution?
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) British Constitution
(C) Russian Constitution
(D) Swiss Constitution
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution draws from various sources, including the Government of India Act, 1935 (federal structure, emergency provisions), the British Constitution (parliamentary system, rule of law), and the Swiss Constitution (referendum for amendments, though not adopted). The Russian Constitution (Soviet model) is not a source, as India’s framework emphasizes democratic and federal principles over socialist centralization. - In which year was the anti-defection law added to the Constitution?
(A) 1984
(B) 1985
(C) 1986
(D) 1989
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The anti-defection law was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985, which introduced the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution. This law aims to prevent elected representatives from switching parties, thereby ensuring political stability. It specifies grounds for disqualification, such as voluntarily giving up party membership or voting against party directives. - Which schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages?
(A) 7th
(B) 8th
(C) 9th
(D) 10th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists the 22 official languages recognized by the Constitution for cultural and official purposes, including Hindi, Tamil, Telugu, Sindhi, and others. Added through various amendments (e.g., 21st, 71st, 92nd), it promotes linguistic diversity and ensures the preservation and development of India’s major languages. - Which Article mentions abolition of titles?
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 17
(C) Article 18
(D) Article 19
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 18 prohibits the conferment of titles by the state, except military and academic distinctions, and prevents Indian citizens from accepting titles from foreign states without the President’s consent. This provision promotes equality by abolishing princely titles and privileges, aligning with the democratic ethos of the Constitution. - The State Human Rights Commission was established under which Act?
(A) Human Rights Act, 1991
(B) Human Rights Act, 1992
(C) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
(D) State Rights Protection Act, 1994
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, which also created the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC). The SHRC addresses human rights violations within a state, investigating complaints and recommending remedies, while working in coordination with the NHRC to protect human rights. - Which High Court is common to two or more states?
(A) Bombay
(B) Guwahati
(C) Kerala
(D) Delhi
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Guwahati High Court serves as the common High Court for seven northeastern states: Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, and Tripura. Established under Article 214, it exercises jurisdiction over these states due to their smaller size and shared judicial needs, ensuring efficient administration of justice in the region. - The first Lok Sabha election was held in –
(A) 1947
(B) 1950
(C) 1951–52
(D) 1955
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The first Lok Sabha election was conducted between October 1951 and February 1952, following the adoption of the Constitution in 1950. This landmark election established India’s democratic framework, electing 489 members to the Lok Sabha based on universal adult suffrage, marking the beginning of parliamentary democracy in independent India. - Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Rigid and unitary
(B) Federal with strong unitary features
(C) Unitary with federal features
(D) Completely unitary
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution is described as federal with strong unitary features. It establishes a federal structure with a division of powers between the Union and states (Seventh Schedule), but includes unitary features like a strong central authority, single citizenship, and emergency provisions (e.g., Article 356), which tilt the balance toward the Union for national unity and stability. - Which article deals with disqualification on grounds of defection?
(A) Article 101
(B) Article 102
(C) Article 103
(D) Article 104
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 102, along with the Tenth Schedule (added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985), deals with the disqualification of Members of Parliament on grounds of defection. A member can be disqualified for voluntarily giving up party membership or voting against party directives without prior permission, ensuring political stability and discouraging party-switching. - Which Article mentions the duties of the Prime Minister?
(A) Article 73
(B) Article 74
(C) Article 75
(D) Article 78
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 78 outlines the duties of the Prime Minister, including communicating to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers, furnishing information about Union affairs, and submitting matters for the Council’s consideration when requested by the President. This ensures coordination between the executive and the President, facilitating effective governance. - The leader of the opposition is given the status and facilities of –
(A) Cabinet Minister
(B) Minister of State
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Deputy Speaker
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, recognized under the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977, is granted the status, salary, and facilities equivalent to a Cabinet Minister. This ensures that the opposition plays a constructive role in parliamentary democracy, holding the government accountable. - Which of the following can’t be dissolved?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislative Assembly
(D) Parliament
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved, as per Article 83, with one-third of its members retiring every two years. In contrast, the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies can be dissolved before their five-year term in cases of early elections or President’s Rule, and Parliament as a whole includes the dissolvable Lok Sabha. - Which of the following is a quasi-judicial body?
(A) UPSC
(B) NHRC
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Planning Commission
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A quasi-judicial body has partial judicial powers, such as adjudicating disputes or issuing orders. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, investigates human rights violations, conducts inquiries, and recommends remedies, making it quasi-judicial. The UPSC and Finance Commission are administrative, and the Planning Commission (replaced by NITI Aayog) was a policy body. - Which commission was formed to review Centre-State relations?
(A) Mandal Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Shah Commission
(D) Punchhi Commission
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission (1983–1988) was established to review and recommend improvements in Centre-State relations, focusing on legislative, administrative, and financial aspects of federalism. Its recommendations, such as guidelines for imposing President’s Rule, aimed to strengthen cooperative federalism. The Punchhi Commission (2007) later revisited this issue, but Sarkaria was the first major commission. - Which act was passed to enforce the 73rd Amendment?
(A) Panchayati Raj Act
(B) Local Self-Government Act
(C) State Panchayat Act
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 mandated states to enact Panchayati Raj Acts to implement the constitutional provisions for Panchayati Raj Institutions (Part IX, Articles 243–243O). These state-specific acts establish the structure, powers, and election processes for panchayats, ensuring decentralized governance in rural areas as per the 11th Schedule. - The Governor is appointed by the –
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Rajya Sabha
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 155, the Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India. The Governor acts as the constitutional head of the state, representing the Union government, and serves at the President’s pleasure, ensuring coordination between the Centre and the state in the federal structure. - Which of these features is NOT borrowed from the British Constitution?
(A) Parliamentary system
(B) Rule of Law
(C) Judicial review
(D) Cabinet system
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution borrows the parliamentary system, rule of law, and cabinet system from the British Constitution, reflecting a government accountable to the legislature and equal application of law. Judicial review, the power of courts to review the constitutionality of laws, is derived from the U.S. Constitution, as the British system relies on parliamentary sovereignty without a written constitution. - The Constitution of India was adopted on –
(A) 26th January 1950
(B) 15th August 1947
(C) 26th November 1949
(D) 30th January 1950
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949, after nearly three years of drafting and deliberation. It came into effect on January 26, 1950, marking India’s transition to a sovereign republic and establishing the Constitution as the supreme law of the land. - The maximum number of members in Legislative Assembly is fixed at –
(A) 500
(B) 525
(C) 550
(D) 600
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 170 fixes the maximum strength of a State Legislative Assembly at 500 members, elected directly by the people. This limit ensures effective representation while accommodating population variations across states. Smaller states like Sikkim may have fewer members, but the constitutional cap remains 500. - The power of judicial review in India is enjoyed by –
(A) Supreme Court only
(B) High Courts only
(C) Both Supreme Court and High Courts
(D) President
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Judicial review, the power to examine the constitutionality of laws and executive actions, is exercised by both the Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Courts (Article 226). The Supreme Court reviews cases of national importance, while High Courts handle state-level matters, ensuring the Constitution’s supremacy and protection of Fundamental Rights. - Which Constitutional Amendment introduced Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
(A) 100th
(B) 101st
(C) 102nd
(D) 103rd
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2016 introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) by amending the Constitution to create a unified tax system. It added Articles 246A, 269A, and 279A, enabling both Parliament and state legislatures to levy GST and establishing the GST Council to oversee its implementation, transforming India’s tax structure. - Which Article empowers the President to declare a Financial Emergency?
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 370
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 360 empowers the President to declare a Financial Emergency if there is a threat to India’s financial stability or credit. This allows the Union to issue directions to states for financial discipline, reduce salaries of public servants, and control money bills. As of June 2025, no Financial Emergency has been declared in India. - Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting elections?
(A) CAG
(B) Election Commission
(C) Law Commission
(D) UPSC
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Election Commission of India, established under Article 324, is responsible for conducting free and fair elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. It oversees voter lists, election schedules, and enforcement of the model code of conduct, ensuring the integrity of India’s electoral process. - Which Article allows Parliament to make laws for giving effect to international agreements?
(A) Article 251
(B) Article 252
(C) Article 253
(D) Article 254
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 253 grants Parliament the authority to enact laws to implement international agreements, treaties, or conventions, even if the subject lies in the State List. This ensures that India can fulfill global commitments, such as environmental or trade agreements, by passing uniform legislation applicable across the country. - Who can remove the Governor of a state?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) State Legislature
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 156, the Governor serves at the pleasure of the President and can be removed by the President at any time. This reflects the Governor’s role as a Union appointee, ensuring central oversight over state executives, though removal is typically based on recommendations from the Union government. - Who decides disputes regarding disqualification of MPs?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker
(D) Election Commission
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 103, disputes regarding the disqualification of Members of Parliament (e.g., on grounds of defection under the Tenth Schedule) are decided by the President, who acts on the advice of the Election Commission. For Lok Sabha members, the Speaker may initially decide, but the final authority rests with the President for both houses. - Which writ is issued to an authority to perform its duty?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Certiorari
(C) Mandamus
(D) Prohibition
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The writ of Mandamus is issued by a court to compel a public authority or official to perform a duty they are legally obligated to undertake but have failed to do. It ensures that administrative or statutory responsibilities are fulfilled, protecting citizens’ rights when authorities neglect their obligations. - Which writ is issued to prevent a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction?
(A) Prohibition
(B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo Warranto
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The writ of Prohibition is issued by a higher court (Supreme Court or High Court) to prevent a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting beyond its legal authority. It is a preventive measure to ensure that judicial bodies operate within their designated powers, maintaining the rule of law. - Who presides over the joint session of Parliament?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 118, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint session of Parliament, convened to resolve disagreements between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on a bill (e.g., a non-Money Bill). In the Speaker’s absence, the Deputy Speaker or another designated member presides, ensuring orderly proceedings during such rare sessions. - Which part of the Constitution deals with citizenship?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part II of the Constitution (Articles 5–11) deals with citizenship, outlining the criteria for determining Indian citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution, acquisition, and termination of citizenship. It establishes single citizenship for India, ensuring uniform rights and duties across states, unlike dual citizenship models in some federal systems. - Which Article allows Parliament to create new All-India Services?
(A) Article 312
(B) Article 314
(C) Article 316
(D) Article 318
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 312 empowers Parliament to create new All-India Services (e.g., IAS, IPS) if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority, declaring it necessary for national interest. These services, common to the Union and states, ensure administrative uniformity and efficiency across India’s federal structure.