- Which House of Parliament is more powerful in case of a Money Bill?
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Both equal
(D) Depends on President
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 109 of the Constitution, the Lok Sabha holds exclusive authority over Money Bills, which include matters like taxation, government expenditure, and borrowing. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and after its passage, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha, which has 14 days to suggest amendments. The Lok Sabha can accept or reject these suggestions, and the bill is deemed passed even if the Rajya Sabha does not act within this period. This ensures financial legislation is controlled by the directly elected house, reflecting democratic accountability. - Who among the following can participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament but cannot vote?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Attorney General
(D) Chief Justice
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Attorney General of India, as per Article 76, is the chief legal advisor to the government and has the right to participate in the proceedings of both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, including debates and committee meetings. However, since the Attorney General is not an elected or nominated member of either house, they do not have voting rights. This privilege allows them to provide legal insights during legislative discussions without influencing the voting process. - Which of the following bodies is not a constitutional body?
(A) UPSC
(B) Election Commission
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) Finance Commission
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A constitutional body is one established by provisions in the Constitution. The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) under Article 315, the Election Commission under Article 324, and the Finance Commission under Article 280 are explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, granting them constitutional status. In contrast, NITI Aayog, established in 2015 by a Cabinet resolution, is a non-constitutional body, as it lacks a constitutional provision defining its creation or functions. - The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act gave constitutional status to –
(A) Urban Local Bodies
(B) Panchayati Raj Institutions
(C) High Courts
(D) Cooperative Societies
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced Part IX (Articles 243 to 243O) and the 11th Schedule to the Constitution, granting constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions. This amendment aimed to strengthen rural local governance by mandating a three-tier system of panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels, with provisions for regular elections, reservations, and devolution of powers. It ensures decentralized governance and empowers local bodies to address rural development needs. - In which schedule are the powers and functions of municipalities listed?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 12th
(D) 9th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 12th Schedule, added foo by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, lists 18 functions assigned to municipalities, including urban planning, water supply, public health, slum improvement, and urban poverty alleviation. This schedule is part of Part IX-A (Articles 243P to 243ZG), which provides constitutional status to urban local bodies, ensuring their role in urban governance and development. - Which Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 61st
(D) 73rd
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 amended Article 326, which governs the eligibility for elections to Parliament and state legislatures. By reducing the voting age from 21 to 18, this amendment expanded democratic participation, allowing younger citizens to engage in the electoral process. The change aimed to reflect the maturity and political awareness of youth in India’s democratic framework. - Which Fundamental Right is guaranteed only to citizens?
(A) Right to Life
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Speech
(D) Right to Protection in Criminal Law
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution are available to both citizens and non-citizens, but certain rights are exclusive to citizens. The Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article 19(1)(a) is guaranteed only to Indian citizens, allowing them to express opinions freely, subject to reasonable restrictions. In contrast, rights like Right to Life (Article 21) and Right to Equality (Article 14) extend to all persons within India, including foreigners. - The concept of ‘Single Citizenship’ in India is borrowed from –
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) Canada
(D) Ireland
Answer: (B)
Explanation: India’s single citizenship model, outlined in Part II (Articles 5–11), is inspired by the United Kingdom. Unlike federal systems like the USA, where citizens hold both state and national citizenship, India provides only one national citizenship. This ensures uniformity in rights and duties across the country, regardless of the state of residence, promoting national unity in a diverse federal structure. - Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty?
(A) To respect the Constitution
(B) To protect national flag and anthem
(C) To pay taxes
(D) To uphold and protect sovereignty
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Fundamental Duties, listed under Article 51A in Part IV-A, were added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 to promote civic responsibility. They include duties like respecting the Constitution, protecting the national flag and anthem, and upholding the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. Paying taxes, while a legal obligation under various tax laws, is not enumerated as a Fundamental Duty in the Constitution. - The Directive Principles of State Policy are –
(A) Justiciable
(B) Non-justiciable
(C) Enforceable by court
(D) Legally binding
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs), outlined in Part IV (Articles 36–51), are guidelines for the state to promote social, economic, and political justice. Unlike Fundamental Rights, DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts if the state fails to implement them. However, they are fundamental in shaping governance and legislation, aiming for a welfare state as envisioned by the Constitution’s framers. - Which Article provides that the law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 144
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 141 establishes the principle of judicial precedent, stating that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within India. This ensures uniformity in the interpretation and application of laws across the country’s judicial system. The provision strengthens the Supreme Court’s role as the apex court, making its judgments authoritative for lower courts, including High Courts and subordinate courts. - The minimum number of judges in a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court is –
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Answer: (B)
Explanation: As per Article 145, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court consists of at least five judges to hear cases involving substantial questions of law related to the interpretation of the Constitution. This requirement ensures that significant constitutional matters, such as challenges to amendments or fundamental rights, are decided by a larger bench to reflect broader judicial consensus. - The term of office of a judge of the Supreme Court is until –
(A) 60 years
(B) 62 years
(C) 65 years
(D) 70 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 124, a Supreme Court judge holds office until they reach the age of 65 years. This retirement age ensures a balance between judicial experience and the infusion of new perspectives in the apex court. Upon retirement, judges may be appointed to other constitutional or statutory bodies but cannot practice law in Indian courts. - The Governor holds office –
(A) During pleasure of President
(B) For 5 years
(C) For 6 years
(D) Until next elections
Answer: (A)
Explanation: According to Article 156, the Governor of a state serves at the pleasure of the President of India, meaning they can be removed at any time by the President without a fixed term. While the Constitution mentions a possible term of five years, this is subject to the President’s discretion, reflecting the central government’s control over state executives. - Which is the highest criminal court in a district?
(A) District Magistrate
(B) District and Sessions Court
(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) High Court
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The District and Sessions Court serves as the highest criminal court at the district level. It handles serious criminal cases, such as murder or robbery, as a Sessions Court and hears appeals from lower courts. Presided over by a District and Sessions Judge, it operates under the supervision of the High Court, which is the next appellate authority in the judicial hierarchy. - Which part of the Constitution deals with the official language?
(A) Part XIV
(B) Part XVII
(C) Part XV
(D) Part XX
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part XVII of the Constitution (Articles 343–351) addresses the official language of the Union and states. It designates Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union, with English as an additional language for official purposes. It also includes provisions for state languages and the promotion of Hindi, ensuring linguistic diversity and administrative efficiency. - The concept of Republic means –
(A) King as head of state
(B) Hereditary monarchy
(C) Elected head of state
(D) Rule by a religious leader
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A Republic is a form of government where the head of state is elected, either directly or indirectly, rather than being a hereditary monarch. In India, the President, elected by an electoral college, serves as the head of state, embodying the republican principle as enshrined in the Constitution. This distinguishes India from monarchies or theocratic states. - The 11th Schedule of the Constitution is related to –
(A) Urban Local Bodies
(B) Panchayati Raj
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Directive Principles
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 11th Schedule, introduced by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, lists 29 functions assigned to Panchayati Raj Institutions, including agriculture, rural housing, drinking water, and poverty alleviation. This schedule supports the decentralization of power to rural local bodies, enabling them to address local development needs effectively. - Which of the following is a feature of the parliamentary system?
(A) Separation of powers
(B) Dual executive
(C) Single executive
(D) Presidential veto
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The parliamentary system in India features a dual executive: a nominal executive (the President) who is the constitutional head of state, and a real executive (the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers) who wield actual executive power. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, distinguishing this system from the presidential system, which has a single executive and separation of powers. - The Chief Minister of a state is appointed by –
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Home Minister
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 164, the Chief Minister of a state is appointed by the Governor. Typically, the Governor appoints the leader of the majority party or coalition in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister, who then forms the Council of Ministers. This process ensures that the state executive reflects the democratic mandate of the legislature. - Which Article empowers Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List during National Emergency?
(A) Article 249
(B) Article 250
(C) Article 252
(D) Article 253
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 250 grants Parliament the power to legislate on any matter in the State List during a National Emergency proclaimed under Article 356. This provision temporarily shifts legislative authority to the Union, enabling it to address urgent national concerns, such as security or economic stability, that may require uniform laws across states. - Which is not a condition for the proclamation of President’s Rule in a state?
(A) Failure of constitutional machinery
(B) Hung assembly
(C) Demand from opposition
(D) No budget passed
Answer: (C)
Explanation: President’s Rule under Article 356 is imposed when the constitutional machinery in a state fails, such as in cases of a hung assembly (no party securing a majority) or failure to pass the state budget, leading to governance breakdown. A demand from the opposition, however, is not a constitutional ground for imposing President’s Rule, as it lacks legal basis and depends on political motives. - Which schedule distributes powers between Union and States?
(A) Sixth Schedule
(B) Seventh Schedule
(C) Eighth Schedule
(D) Ninth Schedule
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule divides legislative powers between the Union and states into three lists: the Union List (100 subjects, e.g., defense, foreign affairs), the State List (61 subjects, e.g., agriculture, police), and the Concurrent List (52 subjects, e.g., education, marriage). This division is a cornerstone of India’s federal structure, ensuring clarity in legislative authority. - Who can suspend Fundamental Rights during emergency?
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 359, the President can suspend the enforcement of certain Fundamental Rights (except Articles 20 and 21) during a National Emergency. This allows the state to take extraordinary measures to address crises, such as war or internal disturbance, while ensuring that rights like protection against retrospective criminal laws (Article 20) and right to life (Article 21) remain protected. - Who can introduce a Constitutional Amendment Bill?
(A) President only
(B) Prime Minister only
(C) Any Member of Parliament
(D) Only Law Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A Constitutional Amendment Bill, as per Article 368, can be introduced by any Member of Parliament, either in the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, as a private member’s bill or a government bill. The bill requires a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting, with over 50% of the total membership) and, in some cases, ratification by half the states to amend the Constitution. - What is the maximum number of members in a Legislative Assembly?
(A) 400
(B) 500
(C) 550
(D) 600
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 170 specifies that the maximum strength of a State Legislative Assembly is 500 members, elected directly by the people of the state. This limit ensures manageable representation while accommodating the population size of larger states. The actual strength varies based on population and delimitation, but it cannot exceed 500. - What is the minimum age for election to the Legislative Council?
(A) 21 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 35 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 171, the minimum age for election or nomination to the State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is 30 years. This higher age requirement compared to the Legislative Assembly (25 years) reflects the Council’s role as an upper house, intended to include more experienced representatives. - In India, a person can be a member of –
(A) Both Houses of Parliament at the same time
(B) Only one House at a time
(C) No House at all
(D) Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assembly simultaneously
Answer: (B)
Explanation: As per Article 101, a person cannot be a member of both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha simultaneously. If elected to both, they must resign from one seat within 14 days. Similarly, a person cannot hold membership in Parliament and a state legislature concurrently, ensuring clear representation and avoiding conflicts of interest. - The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of –
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Planning Commission
(D) National Development Council
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 64, the Vice-President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, presiding over its sessions and maintaining order. In case of a tie in voting, the Vice-President casts the deciding vote. This role underscores the Vice-President’s integral position in the functioning of the upper house of Parliament. - The maximum strength of Lok Sabha, as fixed by the Constitution, is –
(A) 545
(B) 552
(C) 500
(D) 540
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 81 fixes the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha at 552 members, comprising up to 530 members from states, 20 from Union Territories, and 2 nominated members from the Anglo-Indian community (if the President deems necessary). As of 2025, the Anglo-Indian nomination provision has lapsed, but the constitutional maximum remains 552. - A Bill pending in Parliament lapses on –
(A) Dissolution of Lok Sabha
(B) Resignation of the Prime Minister
(C) Imposition of emergency
(D) End of budget session
Answer: (A)
Explanation: When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all bills pending in it lapse, as the house ceases to exist. However, bills pending in the Rajya Sabha, which is a permanent body, do not lapse and can be taken up by the new Lok Sabha. Events like the Prime Minister’s resignation or an emergency do not automatically cause bills to lapse. - Which of the following is not a part of the Parliament of India?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) President
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Parliament of India, as defined under Article 79, consists of the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. The President plays a legislative role by assenting to bills and summoning sessions, making them an integral part of Parliament. The Supreme Court, however, is part of the judiciary, independent of the legislative branch. - What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 50
(C) 60
(D) 70
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 170 sets the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly at 40 members, ensuring a functional legislative body even in smaller states. Exceptions, like Goa or Sikkim, may have fewer members due to their small population, but the constitutional minimum is 40. - The Indian Parliament is –
(A) Unicameral
(B) Bicameral
(C) Tricameral
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Indian Parliament is bicameral, comprising two houses: the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). This structure, outlined in Article 79, balances representation of the people and states, facilitating comprehensive legislative deliberation in a federal system. - Which is not a method of amendment under Article 368?
(A) Simple majority
(B) Special majority
(C) Special majority + ratification by states
(D) Referendum
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 368 provides two methods for amending the Constitution: a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting, with over 50% of total membership) and, for certain provisions (e.g., federal structure), a special majority plus ratification by at least half the state legislatures. A simple majority is used for ordinary laws, not constitutional amendments, and a referendum is not a method in India’s amendment process. - The function of UPSC is to –
(A) Appoint civil servants
(B) Conduct exams and give recommendations
(C) Recruit police officers
(D) Enact policies
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), established under Article 315, is responsible for conducting competitive examinations for recruitment to All-India Services, Central Services, and certain state services. It recommends selected candidates to the government, but the actual appointment is made by the President or Governor. The UPSC does not recruit police officers directly or enact policies. - The Finance Commission is constituted –
(A) Every 3 years
(B) Every 5 years
(C) Every 10 years
(D) As required
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 280, the Finance Commission is constituted every five years by the President to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and states, grants-in-aid, and other financial matters. This periodic review ensures equitable fiscal federalism, addressing the changing economic needs of states and the Union. - Which of the following is a statutory body?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) National Human Rights Commission
Answer: (D)
Explanation: A statutory body is created by an Act of Parliament, while a constitutional body is established by the Constitution. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, making it a statutory body. The Election Commission (Article 324) and Finance Commission (Article 280) are constitutional bodies, and NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional, non-statutory body. - Article 243G relates to the powers of –
(A) Municipalities
(B) Panchayats
(C) State Governments
(D) Union Territories
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 243G, part of Part IX introduced by the 73rd Amendment Act, outlines the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats. It mandates states to devolve functions listed in the 11th Schedule, such as agriculture and rural development, to panchayats, enabling them to function as institutions of self-government in rural areas. - Which language was added by the 22nd Constitutional Amendment?
(A) Sindhi
(B) Konkani
(C) Manipuri
(D) Bodo
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The 22nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1969 amended the 8th Schedule to include Sindhi as a scheduled language, increasing the total number of languages recognized for official and cultural purposes. Other languages like Konkani, Manipuri, and Bodo were added later by the 71st and 92nd Amendments. - The Indian Constitution was enacted in –
(A) 1947
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1952
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution was adopted and enacted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949, after nearly three years of deliberation. It came into effect on January 26, 1950, marking India’s transition to a sovereign republic with a written Constitution as the supreme law of the land. - What is the maximum number of ministers allowed in a state government?
(A) 10% of assembly
(B) 15% of assembly
(C) 20% of assembly
(D) No limit
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 amended Article 164 to limit the size of the Council of Ministers in a state to 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly. This restriction aims to prevent oversized ministries, promote efficient governance, and reduce administrative costs. - The Preamble was amended by –
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 52nd Amendment
(D) 61st Amendment
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, often called the “mini-Constitution,” amended the Preamble to add the words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” to the description of India as a “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic.” This was the only amendment to the Preamble, reflecting India’s commitment to social justice, religious neutrality, and national unity. - Which of the following statements is true about the Preamble?
(A) It is part of the Constitution
(B) It cannot be amended
(C) It grants rights
(D) It is not enforceable
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution, as affirmed by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). It outlines the Constitution’s objectives, such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. While it can be amended (as done by the 42nd Amendment), it does not grant enforceable rights and serves as a guiding vision rather than a legally binding provision. - The Chairman of Finance Commission is appointed by –
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) President
(D) Cabinet
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 280, the President appoints the Chairman and four other members of the Finance Commission. The Chairman is typically a person with expertise in public finance, and the commission’s role is to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Union and states, ensuring fiscal balance in India’s federal structure. - Which of the following terms was not originally in the Preamble?
(A) Socialist
(B) Secular
(C) Integrity
(D) Democratic
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The original Preamble, enacted in 1949, described India as a “Sovereign Democratic Republic.” The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added the terms “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” to reflect India’s commitment to social justice, religious neutrality, and national unity. “Democratic” was part of the original text, emphasizing governance by the people. - Which House is considered the Council of States?
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Vidhan Sabha
(D) Vidhan Parishad
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha, as per Article 80, is known as the Council of States, representing the states and Union Territories in India’s federal structure. Its members are elected by state legislative assemblies, ensuring that state interests are voiced in national legislation, unlike the Lok Sabha, which represents the people directly. - How many languages are in the 8th Schedule?
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 23
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 8th Schedule of the Constitution lists 22 languages recognized for official and cultural purposes, including Hindi, Tamil, Telugu, Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri, and Bodo. These languages were added through various amendments, with the 21st, 71st, and 92nd Amendments including additional languages to promote linguistic diversity. - The number of judges in the Supreme Court can be increased by –
(A) Chief Justice
(B) Parliament
(C) President
(D) Cabinet
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 124 allows the Parliament to increase the number of Supreme Court judges by passing a law. The strength has been increased over time to address the growing caseload, with the Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Act determining the current number, subject to parliamentary approval. - The Indian Constitution came into force on –
(A) 26th January 1949
(B) 26th January 1950
(C) 15th August 1947
(D) 26th November 1949
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949, and came into force on January 26, 1950, celebrated as Republic Day. This date marks India’s establishment as a sovereign republic, replacing the Government of India Act, 1935, with a new constitutional framework that embodies democratic and republican principles.