This set of high-level Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on Political Science is designed to aid your preparation for competitive examinations like UPSC, State Public Service Commissions (PSC), and Combined Graduate Level (CGL) exams. Each question is followed by its correct answer and a detailed explanation to deepen your understanding of Indian Polity.
- The ‘Union Public Service Commission’ is constituted under which Article?
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 321
(D) Article 325
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 315 provides for the establishment of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and the State Public Service Commissions (SPSCs). The UPSC is India’s premier central recruiting agency responsible for appointments to and examinations for All India services and group A & B of Central services. It is a constitutional body and functions with autonomy and independence ensured by the Constitution.
- The power of the President to issue ordinances is given under –
(A) Article 121
(B) Article 213
(C) Article 123
(D) Article 132
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when either house of Parliament is not in session. Ordinances have the same force as parliamentary laws but must be approved within six weeks of reassembly. This emergency provision ensures continuity in governance but is subject to judicial review to prevent misuse.
- Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Federal in nature
(B) Parliamentary system
(C) Presidential system
(D) Independent judiciary
Answer: (C)
Explanation: India follows a parliamentary system, not a presidential system. In a presidential system like the USA, the President is both the head of state and government. In contrast, India has a ceremonial President and a real executive in the form of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. The Indian system is marked by collective responsibility, bicameralism, and separation of powers.
- Which of the following is not a permanent committee of Parliament?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Advisory Committee on Budget
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The three permanent financial committees—Estimates Committee, Public Accounts Committee, and Committee on Public Undertakings—play a crucial role in parliamentary oversight of public finance. The Advisory Committee on Budget, on the other hand, is not recognized as a standing committee.
- The residuary powers in India are vested in –
(A) Centre
(B) State
(C) Both
(D) President
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Residuary powers refer to subjects not enumerated in the Union, State, or Concurrent lists. Unlike in the United States, where states enjoy residuary powers, in India they are vested with the Centre under Article 248, reinforcing India’s unitary bias within its federal framework.
- Which schedule lists the official languages?
(A) 6th Schedule
(B) 7th Schedule
(C) 8th Schedule
(D) 9th Schedule
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution originally listed 14 languages. Through subsequent amendments, this list has expanded to include 22 languages. It reflects India’s linguistic diversity and aims to promote and preserve regional languages.
- Which Article gives special status to Scheduled Tribes in Assam?
(A) Article 370
(B) Article 371
(C) Article 371B
(D) Article 372
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 371B allows the creation of a committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly to safeguard the interests of the tribal communities in the state. This provision was introduced to address the socio-political issues unique to Assam’s tribal population.
- Which committee recommended Panchayati Raj in India?
(A) Balwantrai Mehta
(B) Ashok Mehta
(C) GVK Rao
(D) L.M. Singhvi
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957) was tasked with examining the working of the Community Development Programme. It recommended a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj—village, block, and district level—for democratic decentralization. Rajasthan became the first state to implement this in 1959.
- The ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ was propounded in –
(A) Golaknath Case
(B) Shankari Prasad Case
(C) Kesavananda Bharati Case
(D) Minerva Mills Case
Answer: (C)
Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that while Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter its ‘basic structure.’ This includes features like the supremacy of the Constitution, republican form of government, secularism, and separation of powers.
- The President can seek advisory opinion of Supreme Court under –
(A) Article 132
(B) Article 143
(C) Article 136
(D) Article 144
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 143 authorizes the President to refer any question of law or public importance to the Supreme Court for an advisory opinion. While the Court’s opinion is not binding, it holds persuasive value. This consultative jurisdiction has been invoked in cases such as the Berubari Union and Ayodhya land dispute.
- Which part of the Constitution deals with Emergency Provisions?
(A) Part XVII
(B) Part XVIII
(C) Part XIX
(D) Part XX
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Emergency provisions are detailed in Part XVIII of the Constitution (Articles 352 to 360). They empower the President to declare National, State, and Financial Emergencies under specified conditions. These provisions aim to protect the sovereignty, integrity, and stability of the nation during crises, though they can temporarily restrict certain constitutional rights.
- The term of State Legislative Assembly is –
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) Varies with state
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 172 specifies that the duration of a State Legislative Assembly is five years from its first sitting, unless dissolved sooner. However, during a national emergency, its term may be extended by Parliament for one year at a time.
- The concept of ‘Secularism’ in the Indian Constitution means –
(A) Absence of religion
(B) Separation of church and state
(C) Equal respect to all religions
(D) No religious education
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Indian secularism, as stated in the Preamble and reflected in Articles 25 to 28, guarantees all citizens the freedom to practice, profess, and propagate any religion. It emphasizes ‘Sarva Dharma Sambhava’ — equal treatment of all religions by the State, without promoting or interfering with any one religion.
- The Oath of office to the Governor is administered by –
(A) President
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Chief Justice of High Court
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: According to Article 159, the oath or affirmation of the Governor is administered by the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court, or in his absence, the senior-most judge of that court. The oath includes upholding the Constitution and performing duties faithfully.
- Who acts as the link between the President and the Council of Ministers?
(A) Lok Sabha Speaker
(B) Vice-President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Attorney General
Answer: (C)
Explanation: As per Article 78, the Prime Minister serves as the principal channel of communication between the President and the Council of Ministers. He advises the President and keeps him informed about the affairs of the government and decisions taken by the Cabinet.
- How many members of the Anglo-Indian community could be nominated to Lok Sabha (before 104th Amendment)?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Before the 104th Constitutional Amendment (2020), Article 331 empowered the President to nominate two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha if the community was under-represented. This provision was discontinued by the amendment.
- Which Constitutional Amendment Act abolished the Anglo-Indian seat reservation?
(A) 101st
(B) 102nd
(C) 103rd
(D) 104th
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The 104th Amendment Act, passed in January 2020, removed the provision for the nomination of Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. However, it extended SC/ST reservation for another 10 years till 2030.
- The administrative head of a Union Territory is known as –
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Governor
(C) Administrator or Lieutenant Governor
(D) Collector
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 239, Union Territories are administered by an Administrator appointed by the President. Some UTs like Delhi and Puducherry have a Lieutenant Governor, who has more powers similar to that of a Governor.
- Which Commission is related to Centre-State relations?
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Mandal Commission
(C) Punchhi Commission
(D) Both A and C
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission (1983) and Punchhi Commission (2007) were constituted to examine Centre-State relations and recommend reforms. Their findings address issues like Governor’s role, legislative powers, and financial relations between the Centre and States.
- ‘Quasi-federal’ is a term used to describe –
(A) USA Constitution
(B) Indian Constitution
(C) UK Constitution
(D) French Constitution
Answer: (B)
Explanation: India is often termed ‘quasi-federal’ because it combines features of a federation (dual polity, written constitution) and a unitary state (strong central government, single citizenship). K.C. Wheare coined this term in reference to India’s unique federal structure.
- Which of the following is NOT a writ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Locus Standi
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Courts (Article 226) to issue five types of writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, Prohibition, and Quo-Warranto. ‘Locus Standi’ is not a writ—it refers to the legal standing or right of a person to bring an action or be heard in court.
- Which Schedule provides for allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha?
(A) First
(B) Fourth
(C) Sixth
(D) Seventh
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution allocates seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to the States and Union Territories. The allocation is based on the population of each state and can be modified by Parliament by law.
- Which Article empowers Parliament to form new states?
(A) Article 2
(B) Article 3
(C) Article 4
(D) Article 1
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 3 grants the power to Parliament to form new states or alter the boundaries, names, or areas of existing states. However, the President must first refer the bill to the concerned state legislature for its views.
- Which of the following is not a fundamental duty?
(A) Respect the Constitution
(B) Uphold sovereignty
(C) Pay taxes
(D) Develop scientific temper
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Fundamental Duties under Article 51A do not include paying taxes. Although tax payment is a legal obligation, it is not listed as a constitutional duty.
- What is the minimum age for a person to be appointed as Governor?
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 40 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 157 states that a person must be a citizen of India and at least 35 years of age to be eligible for appointment as a Governor. There is no fixed term for the office.
- The first state to implement Panchayati Raj was –
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Maharashtra
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Rajasthan became the first state to launch the Panchayati Raj system on October 2, 1959, in Nagaur district. This was based on the recommendations of the Balwantrai Mehta Committee.
- The President can nominate members to –
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Both
(D) None
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 80 allows the President to nominate 12 members to Rajya Sabha for their expertise in art, science, literature, and social service. Earlier, under Article 331, two members could be nominated to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian community (now removed by the 104th Amendment).
- The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated in the year –
(A) 1947
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1952
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India came into existence on January 28, 1950, two days after the Constitution was adopted. It replaced the Federal Court of India.
- The main objective of the Preamble is to –
(A) Grant citizenship
(B) Outline structure of government
(C) Declare goals and ideals of the Constitution
(D) Define powers of judiciary
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Preamble outlines the key principles and objectives of the Constitution, such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. It reflects the aspirations of the people and serves as a guiding light for constitutional interpretation.
- The first woman Governor of independent India was –
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(C) Sucheta Kripalani
(D) Indira Gandhi
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Sarojini Naidu was appointed as the first woman Governor of an Indian state (Uttar Pradesh) in 1947, making her the first female to hold such a constitutional post.
- Which Amendment removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 52nd
(D) 61st
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it a legal right under Article 300A.
- What is the minimum age to contest elections for Rajya Sabha?
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 35
(D) 21
Answer: (B)
Explanation: As per Article 84 of the Constitution, the minimum age to contest elections for the Rajya Sabha is 30 years. For the Lok Sabha, it is 25 years.
- The Prime Minister is appointed by –
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Rajya Sabha
Answer: (A)
Explanation: According to Article 75, the President appoints the Prime Minister. In practice, the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha is chosen.
- Which Article gives power to the Parliament to amend the Constitution?
(A) 360
(B) 368
(C) 370
(D) 371
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 368 lays down the procedure for amending the Constitution. It provides for both simple and special majority procedures depending on the nature of the amendment.
- What is the tenure of the Finance Commission?
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) 10 years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 280, the President constitutes a Finance Commission every five years to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the States.
- The office of Lokpal was established under –
(A) 73rd Amendment
(B) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 91st Amendment
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, came into force to establish an anti-corruption ombudsman at the central level. The Lokpal can inquire into allegations of corruption against public functionaries.
- The Constitution describes India as –
(A) Federation
(B) Union of States
(C) Confederation
(D) Parliamentary Union
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 1 describes India as a “Union of States.” The term signifies the indestructible nature of the Indian federation and that states do not have the right to secede.
- Who is known as the ‘Father of the Indian Constitution’?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and played a pivotal role in formulating the Indian Constitution, earning him the title ‘Father of the Indian Constitution.’
- The Constituent Assembly was formed in –
(A) 1945
(B) 1946
(C) 1947
(D) 1948
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 as per the Cabinet Mission Plan. It first met on December 9, 1946, to frame the Constitution of India.
- Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(A) G.V. Mavalankar
(B) Hukum Singh
(C) Balram Jakhar
(D) P.A. Sangma
Answer: (A)
Explanation: G.V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha. He held office from 1952 until his death in 1956.
- Article 370 granted special status to –
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Jammu & Kashmir
(D) Mizoram
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 370 granted special autonomous status to Jammu & Kashmir. It was abrogated by the Government of India on August 5, 2019.
- Which Article provides for Grants-in-Aid to states?
(A) Article 270
(B) Article 275
(C) Article 280
(D) Article 286
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 275 allows Parliament to provide for grants-in-aid to certain states as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
- The term ‘Cabinet’ is mentioned in Article –
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 352
(D) Article 77
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The term ‘Cabinet’ was inserted into Article 352 through the 44th Amendment. It states that the President shall act on the written advice of the Cabinet to proclaim Emergency.
- Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 110 empowers the Speaker of the Lok Sabha to declare whether a bill is a Money Bill. The Speaker’s decision is final and binding.
- The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for –
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years or till age 65
(D) No fixed tenure
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for six years or until the age of 65 years, whichever comes earlier. He can only be removed in a manner similar to a Supreme Court judge.
- A law made by Parliament on a subject in the State List is valid during –
(A) Ordinary times
(B) Emergency
(C) Financial instability
(D) President’s Rule
Answer: (B)
Explanation: During a National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List under Article 353.
- Which commission examines the condition of backward classes?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) National Commission for Backward Classes
(D) National Human Rights Commission
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was granted constitutional status by the 102nd Amendment Act, 2018, under Article 338B.
- The ‘Doctrine of Separation of Powers’ is more rigid in –
(A) UK
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Canada
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The U.S. Constitution strictly separates the three branches—executive, legislature, and judiciary—with checks and balances. India, on the other hand, follows a flexible separation.
- Which Article empowers the President to declare Emergency?
(A) 352
(B) 356
(C) 360
(D) 368
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 352 provides for the proclamation of National Emergency in case of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
- Which Article empowers the High Court to issue writs?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 136
(C) Article 226
(D) Article 124
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other legal purpose.