Political Science MCQs (Set 3) for UPSC, PSC & CGL Prep

1. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs?

(A) Article 32

(B) Article 226

(C) Article 136

(D) Article 141

Answer: (A) Explanation: Article 32 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo-Warranto) for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

2. The concept of Judicial Review in India is borrowed from –

(A) USA

(B) UK

(C) Canada

(D) Ireland

Answer: (A) Explanation: The concept of Judicial Review in India is largely borrowed from the Constitution of the United States of America, where the judiciary has the power to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions.

3. The Parliament of India consists of –

(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(B) President and Lok Sabha

(C) President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha

(D) President and Rajya Sabha

Answer: (C) Explanation: As per Article 79 of the Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of the President and two Houses: the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

4. The Vice-President of India is elected by –

(A) Direct vote

(B) Lok Sabha

(C) Rajya Sabha

(D) Members of both Houses of Parliament

Answer: (D) Explanation: The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) through the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

5. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

(A) Right to Equality

(B) Right to Property

(C) Right to Freedom

(D) Right against Exploitation

Answer: (B) Explanation: The Right to Property was originally a Fundamental Right under Article 31, but it was removed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, and made a legal right under Article 300A.

6. Which Amendment made education a Fundamental Right?

(A) 86th

(B) 42nd

(C) 44th

(D) 73rd

Answer: (A) Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A into the Constitution, making education a Fundamental Right for children between 6 and 14 years of age.

7. Which is the highest law-making body in India?

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Parliament

(D) Supreme Court

Answer: (C) Explanation: Parliament (comprising the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha) is the highest law-making body in India, responsible for enacting, amending, and repealing laws.

8. Which Article provides for the establishment of High Courts?

(A) Article 214

(B) Article 215

(C) Article 216

(D) Article 217

Answer: (A) Explanation: Article 214 of the Constitution states that “There shall be a High Court for each State.”

9. The number of High Courts in India (as of 2024) is –

(A) 24

(B) 25

(C) 21

(D) 23

Answer: (B) Explanation: As of 2024, there are 25 High Courts in India. Some High Courts have jurisdiction over more than one State or Union Territory.

10. Which House is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution?

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Rajya Sabha

(C) Legislative Assembly

(D) Vidhan Parishad

Answer: (B) Explanation: The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. One-third of its members retire every two years, and elections are held to fill their seats.

11. Which Article guarantees equality before law?

(A) Article 13

(B) Article 14

(C) Article 15

(D) Article 16

Answer: (B) Explanation: Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees “Equality before law and equal protection of laws” to all persons within the territory of India, prohibiting discrimination.

12. In which year was the Election Commission of India established?

(A) 1947

(B) 1949

(C) 1950

(D) 1952

Answer: (C) Explanation: The Election Commission of India was established on January 25, 1950, a day before India became a Republic. January 25th is celebrated as National Voters’ Day.

13. Who is the Chief Law Officer of India?

(A) Attorney General

(B) Solicitor General

(C) Chief Justice

(D) Law Minister

Answer: (A) Explanation: The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer of the country (Article 76). He is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India.

14. Which Article allows a citizen to move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of rights?

(A) Article 32

(B) Article 226

(C) Article 136

(D) Article 142

Answer: (A) Explanation: Article 32 of the Constitution guarantees the right to constitutional remedies, allowing individuals to directly approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called it the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution.

15. The Right to Freedom of Religion is guaranteed under –

(A) Article 19

(B) Article 21

(C) Article 25

(D) Article 29

Answer: (C) Explanation: Articles 25-28 of the Constitution guarantee the Right to Freedom of Religion, with Article 25 guaranteeing freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.

16. Which of the following is NOT a constitutional body?

(A) Election Commission

(B) Finance Commission

(C) NITI Aayog

(D) UPSC

Answer: (C) Explanation: NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is an extra-constitutional body established by an executive resolution in 2015, replacing the Planning Commission. The others are constitutional bodies.

17. Who administers the oath of office to the President?

(A) Vice-President

(B) Chief Justice of India

(C) Prime Minister

(D) Attorney General

Answer: (B) Explanation: The oath of office to the President of India is administered by the Chief Justice of India, and in his absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court available.

18. Which Article deals with Uniform Civil Code?

(A) Article 40

(B) Article 44

(C) Article 45

(D) Article 48

Answer: (B) Explanation: Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy states that “The State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.”

19. The term of the President of India is –

(A) 4 years

(B) 5 years

(C) 6 years

(D) 7 years

Answer: (B) Explanation: The President of India holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. He is eligible for re-election.

20. The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution in –

(A) 1975

(B) 1976

(C) 1977

(D) 1978

Answer: (B) Explanation: The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

21. The 73rd Amendment deals with –

(A) Municipalities

(B) Urban Governance

(C) Panchayati Raj

(D) Land Reforms

Answer: (C) Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions, formalizing the three-tier system of local self-government in rural areas.

22. The 74th Amendment deals with –

(A) Judiciary

(B) Urban Local Bodies

(C) Defense Services

(D) Education

Answer: (B) Explanation: The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, gave constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities), providing for their structure and powers in urban areas.

23. How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?

(A) 10

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

Answer: (C) Explanation: The Indian Constitution originally had 8 schedules. Currently, there are 12 schedules, which enumerate powers of the Union and State governments, allocation of powers and responsibilities, etc.

24. Which Article gives the power of pardon to the President?

(A) Article 70

(B) Article 71

(C) Article 72

(D) Article 73

Answer: (C) Explanation: Article 72 of the Constitution grants the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.

25. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(A) Sukumar Sen

(B) T.N. Seshan

(C) S.Y. Quraishi

(D) M.S. Gill

Answer: (A) Explanation: Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India, serving from 1950 to 1958. He played a pivotal role in organizing the first general elections in India.

26. The Prime Minister is –

(A) Head of the State

(B) Head of the Government

(C) Head of Judiciary

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) Explanation: In India’s parliamentary system, the President is the Head of the State, while the Prime Minister is the Head of the Government and leads the Council of Ministers.

27. The concept of ‘Judicial Activism’ in India is associated with –

(A) PILs

(B) Judicial appointments

(C) Judicial interpretation

(D) Contempt of court

Answer: (A) Explanation: Judicial activism, where the judiciary takes an active role in policy-making or governance, is most closely associated with the introduction and growth of Public Interest Litigations (PILs) in India.

28. The term ‘Secular’ was added to the Preamble by –

(A) 42nd Amendment

(B) 44th Amendment

(C) 73rd Amendment

(D) 86th Amendment

Answer: (A) Explanation: The word ‘Secular’ along with ‘Socialist’ and ‘Integrity’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

29. Which Article deals with the powers of the Supreme Court?

(A) Article 131

(B) Article 141

(C) Article 143

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) Explanation: Articles 131 (original jurisdiction), 141 (law declared by SC to be binding on all courts), and 143 (President’s power to consult SC) are all articles that define various powers and jurisdictions of the Supreme Court.

30. Which body settles inter-state water disputes?

(A) Supreme Court

(B) President

(C) Parliament

(D) Inter-State Water Tribunal

Answer: (D) Explanation: Inter-State Water Disputes are typically settled by an Inter-State Water Tribunal established by Parliament, as provided for under Article 262 of the Constitution. The Supreme Court’s jurisdiction is generally excluded in such matters unless specified by Parliament.

31. How many judges are there in the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice (2024)?

(A) 30

(B) 31

(C) 33

(D) 34

Answer: (D) Explanation: As of 2024, the sanctioned strength of judges in the Supreme Court of India, including the Chief Justice of India, is 34 (1 Chief Justice + 33 other judges).

32. Which Article is known as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?

(A) Article 19

(B) Article 32

(C) Article 21

(D) Article 14

Answer: (B) Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously referred to Article 32, the Right to Constitutional Remedies, as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution because it provides a mechanism for enforcing the Fundamental Rights.

33. The idea of ‘Concurrent List’ was borrowed from the constitution of –

(A) USA

(B) Canada

(C) Australia

(D) Ireland

Answer: (C) Explanation: The concept of the ‘Concurrent List’, which includes subjects on which both the Union and State governments can legislate, was borrowed from the Constitution of Australia.

34. Who can remove the Chief Election Commissioner?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President

(C) Supreme Court

(D) Parliament (in a manner like SC judge)

Answer: (D) Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court, which requires a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority.

35. Which part of the Constitution deals with citizenship?

(A) Part I

(B) Part II

(C) Part III

(D) Part IV

Answer: (B) Explanation: Part II of the Indian Constitution (Articles 5-11) deals with Citizenship.

36. Which article empowers the High Courts to issue writs?

(A) Article 32

(B) Article 136

(C) Article 226

(D) Article 227

Answer: (C) Explanation: Article 226 of the Constitution empowers the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose (i.e., for the enforcement of any legal right).

37. Who is considered the guardian of Fundamental Rights?

(A) Parliament

(B) President

(C) Supreme Court

(D) Election Commission

Answer: (C) Explanation: The Supreme Court (and High Courts) are considered the guardians and guarantors of Fundamental Rights, with the power to enforce them through various writs.

38. Which House of Parliament is also called the House of the People?

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Rajya Sabha

(C) Vidhan Sabha

(D) Vidhan Parishad

Answer: (A) Explanation: The Lok Sabha is known as the ‘House of the People’ because its members are directly elected by the people through universal adult franchise.

39. What is the minimum age to become Vice-President of India?

(A) 25 years

(B) 30 years

(C) 35 years

(D) 40 years

Answer: (C) Explanation: The minimum age for a person to be qualified for election as Vice-President of India is 35 years (same as for President).

40. The ‘Zero Hour’ starts in Lok Sabha at –

(A) 9 AM

(B) 10 AM

(C) 11 AM

(D) After Question Hour

Answer: (D) Explanation: ‘Zero Hour’ in the Indian Parliament is an informal device that is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. It usually starts immediately after the Question Hour and lasts until the agenda for the day is taken up.

41. Which constitutional amendment created the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)?

(A) 97th

(B) 99th

(C) 101st

(D) 102nd

Answer: (B) Explanation: The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014, established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) for the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts. However, the Supreme Court later declared this amendment unconstitutional.

42. Which commission recommended the reorganization of states on linguistic basis?

(A) Dhar Commission

(B) Fazl Ali Commission

(C) States Reorganization Commission

(D) Sarkaria Commission

Answer: (B) Explanation: The Fazl Ali Commission (also known as the States Reorganisation Commission), appointed in 1953, broadly accepted language as the basis for the reorganisation of states, although it rejected the idea of ‘one language, one state’.

43. The Anti-Defection Law was introduced by which Amendment?

(A) 42nd

(B) 44th

(C) 52nd

(D) 61st

Answer: (C) Explanation: The Anti-Defection Law was introduced by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, which added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution to curb political defections.

44. The Constitution was adopted on –

(A) 15th August 1947

(B) 26th November 1949

(C) 26th January 1950

(D) 30th January 1948

Answer: (B) Explanation: The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949, and some provisions relating to citizenship, elections, provisional Parliament, etc., came into force immediately.

45. Which Article deals with the Official Language of the Union?

(A) 343

(B) 344

(C) 345

(D) 346

Answer: (A) Explanation: Article 343 of the Constitution declares Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union.

46. The Right to Information Act came into force in –

(A) 2002

(B) 2005

(C) 2006

(D) 2007

Answer: (B) Explanation: The Right to Information Act (RTI Act) was enacted by the Parliament of India on June 15, 2005, and came into full force on October 12, 2005.

47. The Indian Constitution is regarded as –

(A) Rigid

(B) Flexible

(C) Partly rigid and partly flexible

(D) Unitary

Answer: (C) Explanation: The Indian Constitution is considered unique because it is neither purely rigid (like the US Constitution) nor purely flexible (like the UK Constitution) but a synthesis of both, allowing for amendments while safeguarding its basic structure.

48. Which schedule contains anti-defection provisions?

(A) 9th

(B) 10th

(C) 11th

(D) 12th

Answer: (B) Explanation: The 10th Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, contains provisions for disqualification of members of Parliament and state legislatures on the ground of defection.

49. The first Law Minister of Independent India was –

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Sardar Patel

(C) B.R. Ambedkar

(D) Rajendra Prasad

Answer: (C) Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the chief architect of the Indian Constitution, was the first Law Minister of independent India.

50. The body that recommends distribution of taxes is –

(A) NITI Aayog

(B) Finance Commission

(C) RBI

(D) Planning Commission

Answer: (B) Explanation: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body (Article 280) responsible for making recommendations to the President on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states.