MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- The 74th Constitutional Amendment is related to –
(A) Panchayati Raj
(B) Municipalities
(C) Anti-defection
(D) Cooperative Societies
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) added Part IXA and the Twelfth Schedule, granting constitutional status to Municipalities for urban local governance. It establishes structures like Nagar Palikas, complementing the 73rd Amendment for Panchayati Raj. - The provision of reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj institutions is –
(A) 25%
(B) 30%
(C) 33%
(D) 50%
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 243D, added by the 73rd Amendment (1992), mandates not less than 33% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions, ensuring gender representation in rural governance. Some states have increased this to 50% through legislation. - Who among the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Supreme Court is the custodian of the Constitution, interpreting its provisions and protecting Fundamental Rights through judicial review (Articles 13, 32). Landmark cases like Kesavananda Bharati (1973) affirm its role in upholding constitutional supremacy. - The President of India can proclaim emergency under –
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 360
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The President can proclaim National Emergency (Article 352), State Emergency (Article 356), and Financial Emergency (Article 360), on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Each addresses specific crises, with safeguards added by the 44th Amendment (1978). - Which Article empowers the Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more states?
(A) Article 215
(B) Article 216
(C) Article 231
(D) Article 232
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 231 allows Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more states or Union territories, promoting judicial efficiency. Examples include the Punjab and Haryana High Court, distinct from Article 216 (High Court establishment). - Which of the following is NOT a constitutional body?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) UPSC
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Planning Commission was a non-constitutional body, established by a Cabinet resolution in 1950, replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015. Election Commission (Article 324), Finance Commission (Article 280), and UPSC (Article 315) are constitutional bodies. - Which language is not included in the 8th Schedule?
(A) Dogri
(B) Maithili
(C) Tulu
(D) Santhali
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists 22 official languages, including Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali, added by the 92nd Amendment (2003). Tulu, spoken in Karnataka, is not included, despite demands for its recognition. - What is the tenure of the Chief Minister?
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) During the pleasure of Governor
(D) No fixed term
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Chief Minister has no fixed term and serves as long as they enjoy the majority in the State Legislative Assembly (Article 164). Resignation, loss of majority, or the Governor’s dismissal ends their tenure. - Which Fundamental Right is available only to citizens of India?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Life
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Freedom of Speech
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Right to Freedom of Speech (Article 19(1)(a)) is available only to citizens, subject to reasonable restrictions. Right to Life (Article 21) and Freedom of Religion (Articles 25–28) extend to all persons, while Equality (Article 14) applies broadly. - Which body has the final say on disputes regarding the election of the President of India?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Parliament
(D) President
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 71, the Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction over disputes regarding the Presidential election, ensuring impartial adjudication. The Election Commission conducts the election but does not resolve disputes. - Which Article provides for the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?
(A) Article 339
(B) Article 350
(C) Article 350A
(D) Article 350B
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 350B, added by the 7th Amendment (1956), provides for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, appointed by the President, to safeguard their linguistic rights, distinct from Article 350A (regional language education). - Which Constitutional Amendment made education a Fundamental Right?
(A) 84th
(B) 85th
(C) 86th
(D) 87th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002) added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 a Fundamental Right, supported by the Right to Education Act, 2009. - The Indian Constitution provides for –
(A) Presidential system
(B) Cabinet system
(C) Collegiate system
(D) Confederation
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution establishes a Cabinet system (parliamentary system) under Articles 74–75, where the Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, unlike a Presidential system or confederation. - Which Article authorizes the President to grant pardons?
(A) Article 72
(B) Article 73
(C) Article 74
(D) Article 75
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, or commutations for offenses under Union laws, including death sentences, on the advice of the Council of Ministers, reflecting executive mercy. - Which of the following is NOT a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) Equal pay for equal work
(B) Uniform Civil Code
(C) Free and compulsory education
(D) Freedom of press
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Equal pay (Article 39(d)), Uniform Civil Code (Article 44), and education (Article 45, pre-86th Amendment) are Directive Principles. Freedom of press is derived from Article 19(1)(a) (Fundamental Right), not Part IV. - Which is the final authority in India to make laws?
(A) President
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Parliament
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Parliament (Article 79) is the final authority to make laws, subject to judicial review (Article 13). The President grants assent (Article 111), and the Supreme Court interprets laws, but legislative power rests with Parliament. - Who is known as the Constitutional Head of India?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Lok Sabha Speaker
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The President (Article 52) is the Constitutional Head of India, acting as the nominal executive while real power vests in the Council of Ministers (Article 74). The Prime Minister is the executive head, and the Chief Justice leads the judiciary. - Which writ means ‘to be informed of what is going on’?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Prohibition
(C) Certiorari
(D) Habeas Corpus
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Habeas Corpus (Latin: “you may have the body”) means “to be informed of what is going on,” issued under Articles 32 and 226 to protect against illegal detention, ensuring the detaining authority justifies the arrest before a court. - Which Article deals with Right against Exploitation?
(A) Article 22
(B) Article 23
(C) Article 24
(D) Article 25
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labor, forming part of the Right against Exploitation. Article 24 bans child labor, while Article 22 addresses detention safeguards, and Article 25 covers religious freedom. - Which House is more powerful in terms of financial matters?
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Both equal
(D) Finance Commission
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Lok Sabha is more powerful in financial matters, as Money Bills (Article 110) can only be introduced there, and the Rajya Sabha can only recommend amendments (Article 109), ensuring elected representatives’ primacy in taxation and expenditure. - The executive power of the Union is vested in –
(A) Parliament
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) President
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 53, the executive power of the Union is vested in the President, exercised directly or through officers subordinate to them, on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 74), reflecting the parliamentary system’s nominal head. - Which Article defines the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 132
(C) Article 133
(D) Article 134
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 131 defines the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction in disputes between the Centre and states or between states, ensuring direct adjudication of federal conflicts. Articles 132–134 cover appellate jurisdiction. - The word ‘secular’ means –
(A) No religion
(B) Equal treatment of all religions
(C) Minority domination
(D) Anti-religion
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Secular, added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment (1976), means equal treatment of all religions, as upheld in S.R. Bommai (1994). India’s secularism ensures state neutrality, not absence of religion or minority dominance. - What is the minimum age to contest elections for the Lok Sabha?
(A) 18 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 30 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 84, the minimum age to contest Lok Sabha elections is 25 years, ensuring maturity for legislative roles. The Rajya Sabha requires 30 years, while voting eligibility is 18 (Article 326). - The Constitution came into force on –
(A) 26 January 1949
(B) 15 August 1947
(C) 26 January 1950
(D) 26 November 1949
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950, marking India’s transition to a republic. Adopted on November 26, 1949, it replaced the Government of India Act, 1935, with January 26 chosen to honor the 1930 Purna Swaraj declaration. - The power to dissolve the Lok Sabha rests with –
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Speaker
(C) President
(D) Chief Justice
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 85, the President dissolves the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, triggering elections. The Speaker manages proceedings, and the Chief Justice has no role. - The Attorney General of India is appointed under which Article?
(A) Article 75
(B) Article 76
(C) Article 77
(D) Article 78
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 76 provides for the Attorney General of India, appointed by the President, to serve as the Union’s chief legal advisor, holding office during the President’s pleasure, distinct from ministerial appointments (Article 75). - How many High Courts are there in India (as of 2024)?
(A) 24
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 27
Answer: (B)
Explanation: As of 2024, India has 25 High Courts, including those for states and Union territories, such as the newest Andhra Pradesh High Court (2019). Each exercises jurisdiction under Article 214, ensuring state-level judicial oversight. - The Vice-President is elected by –
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Electoral College
(D) President
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 66, the Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College comprising members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, ensuring representation of Parliament. The President appoints, but does not elect, the Vice-President. - The minimum number of judges required for a Constitutional Bench in the Supreme Court is –
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 145(3), a Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court requires a minimum of five judges to hear cases involving substantial constitutional questions, ensuring robust adjudication, as seen in Kesavananda Bharati (1973). - Which is the guardian of Fundamental Rights?
(A) Parliament
(B) Supreme Court
(C) President
(D) Election Commission
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Supreme Court (Articles 32, 13) is the guardian of Fundamental Rights, enforcing them through writs and judicial review. It protects citizens against state violations, as affirmed in I.R. Coelho (2007), distinct from Parliament’s legislative role. - Which Article of the Constitution deals with freedom of speech?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 22
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 19(1)(a) guarantees freedom of speech and expression to citizens, subject to reasonable restrictions (Article 19(2)) like public order or defamation. It underpins democratic discourse, as interpreted in Romesh Thappar (1950). - Which Article allows the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary for doing complete justice?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 142
(C) Article 144
(D) Article 145
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders for complete justice, enabling flexible remedies beyond statutory limits, as seen in the Bhopal Gas Tragedy case (1989). It complements the Court’s jurisdiction under Articles 32 and 136. - The Ninth Schedule was added by which Amendment?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The First Constitutional Amendment Act (1951) added the Ninth Schedule to protect land reform laws from judicial review, shielding them under Article 31B. Its scope was later limited by I.R. Coelho (2007), subjecting laws to basic structure scrutiny. - The first state in India to implement Panchayati Raj was –
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Rajasthan implemented Panchayati Raj first on October 2, 1959, in Nagaur, following the Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957) recommendations. The 73rd Amendment (1992) later constitutionalized the system nationwide. - Which Amendment Act made Sikkim a full-fledged state of India?
(A) 35th
(B) 36th
(C) 37th
(D) 38th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act (1975) made Sikkim a full-fledged state, amending the First Schedule to include it as the 22nd state, following its merger with India after a referendum in 1975. - The Chief Minister is appointed by –
(A) President
(B) Speaker
(C) Governor
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 164, the Governor appoints the Chief Minister, typically the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly, ensuring state executive leadership aligns with legislative support. - Which Article deals with freedom of religion?
(A) Article 23
(B) Article 24
(C) Article 25
(D) Article 26
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 25 guarantees freedom of conscience and the right to practice, profess, and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, and health. Article 26 covers religious institutions’ management, complementing individual rights. - Which is the highest court of appeal in India?
(A) High Court
(B) Supreme Court
(C) President
(D) Parliament
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Supreme Court (Article 136) is the highest court of appeal, hearing appeals from High Courts in civil, criminal, and constitutional matters. It is the final judicial authority, above High Courts and independent of the President or Parliament. - Which Article deals with the Uniform Civil Code?
(A) Article 42
(B) Article 43
(C) Article 44
(D) Article 45
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 44, a Directive Principle, directs the state to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens, promoting equality in personal laws. Non-justiciable, it remains a debated goal, as seen in Shayara Bano (2017) on triple talaq. - The Tenth Schedule was added to the Constitution in the year –
(A) 1984
(B) 1985
(C) 1986
(D) 1987
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1985, introducing the anti-defection law to curb defections by MPs/MLAs, ensuring political stability, later strengthened by the 91st Amendment (2003). - Which of the following is not a function of the UPSC?
(A) Conduct exams
(B) Advise on promotion
(C) Disciplinary cases
(D) Frame laws
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The UPSC (Article 320) conducts examinations, advises on promotions, and handles disciplinary cases for civil services. Framing laws is Parliament’s function (Article 79), not the UPSC’s, ensuring separation of powers. - Which Article provides for Gram Sabha?
(A) Article 240
(B) Article 243
(C) Article 244
(D) Article 245
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 243 defines the Gram Sabha as a body of voters in a village, empowered under the 73rd Amendment (1992) to participate in Panchayati Raj decision-making, ensuring grassroots democracy. Article 244 covers tribal areas. - Which of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Ethics Committee
(C) Joint Parliamentary Committee
(D) National Integration Council
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The National Integration Council is a non-parliamentary body under the Home Ministry, promoting unity. Estimates Committee, Ethics Committee, and Joint Parliamentary Committee are parliamentary committees, overseeing legislative and administrative functions. - Which is the tenure of the members of the State Legislative Council?
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 3 years
(D) No fixed tenure
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 172, State Legislative Council members serve a six-year term, with one-third retiring every two years, making it a permanent body like the Rajya Sabha, unlike the State Assembly (five years). - The words “We, the people of India” indicate –
(A) Republic
(B) Sovereignty
(C) Federalism
(D) Unity
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The phrase “We, the people of India” in the Preamble signifies popular sovereignty, indicating that the Constitution derives its authority from the people, a core democratic principle, as emphasized in Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975). - Which of the following is justiciable?
(A) Directive Principles
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Preamble
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Fundamental Rights (Part III) are justiciable, enforceable by courts under Articles 32 and 226. Directive Principles (Part IV) and Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) are non-justiciable, while the Preamble guides interpretation but lacks direct enforceability. - Which part of the Constitution deals with Union Territories?
(A) Part VI
(B) Part VII
(C) Part VIII
(D) Part IX
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Part VIII (Articles 239–242) deals with Union Territories, outlining their administration by the President through Lieutenant Governors or Administrators. Part VI covers states, Part IX Panchayats, and Part VII was repealed. - The maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament must not exceed –
(A) 3 months
(B) 4 months
(C) 5 months
(D) 6 months
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 85, the maximum gap between two Parliament sessions must not exceed six months, ensuring regular legislative activity, typically through the Budget, Monsoon, and Winter Sessions. - Which of the following is not a feature of the Preamble?
(A) Sovereign
(B) Socialist
(C) Democratic
(D) Federal
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Preamble declares India as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, and Democratic, among others. Federal is not explicitly mentioned, though India’s structure is quasi-federal (Article 1: Union of States), balancing unitary and federal features.