Political Science MCQs (Set 2) for UPSC, PSC & CGL Prep

Which Article provides for the impeachment of the President?

(A) Article 61

(B) Article 72

(D) Article 80

Answer: (A) Explanation: Article 61 of the Indian Constitution lays down the procedure for the impeachment of the President for violation of the Constitution.

The power of judicial review in India is vested with –

(A) Parliament

(B) Supreme Court and High Courts

(D) Attorney General

Answer: (B) Explanation: The power of judicial review, which allows courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders, is vested with both the Supreme Court (under Article 13) and the High Courts (under Article 226).

The Inter-State Council was established under Article –

(A) 262

(B) 263

(D) 265

Answer: (B) Explanation: Article 263 of the Constitution makes provision for the establishment of an Inter-State Council to inquire into and advise upon disputes between states, to investigate and discuss subjects in which some or all of the states, or the Union and one or more of the states, have a common interest.

The Constitution of India recognizes –

(A) Single citizenship

(B) Dual citizenship

(D) Temporary citizenship

Answer: (A) Explanation: The Indian Constitution provides for single citizenship, meaning a person is a citizen of India and not of any state. This fosters national unity and loyalty.

The number of Union Territories in India (as of 2024) is –

(A) 7

(B) 8

(D) 6

Answer: (B) Explanation: As of 2024, India has 28 States and 8 Union Territories. The recent changes involved the reorganisation of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories and the merger of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu into a single Union Territory.

Which Constitutional Amendment Act is related to GST?

(A) 97th

(B) 100th

(D) 102nd

Answer: (C) Explanation: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India, transforming the indirect tax structure.

Which writ is issued to produce a person in court?

(A) Mandamus

(B) Prohibition

(D) Certiorari

Answer: (C) Explanation: Habeas Corpus is a writ issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before the court. The court then examines the cause and legality of detention.

Right to Property is now a –

(A) Fundamental Right

(B) Legal Right

(D) Moral Right

Answer: (B) Explanation: Originally a Fundamental Right under Article 31, the Right to Property was removed from Part III by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978. It was made a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution.

The First Constitutional Amendment was passed in –

(A) 1950

(B) 1951

(D) 1953

Answer: (B) Explanation: The First Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in 1951. It introduced the 9th Schedule to protect certain laws from judicial review, and made other provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes.

Which Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18?

(A) 42nd

(B) 44th

(D) 62nd

Answer: (C) Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1989, reduced the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.

How many languages are listed in the 8th Schedule?

(A) 21

(B) 22

(D) 24

Answer: (B) Explanation: The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists 22 languages officially recognized as the scheduled languages of India.

The term ‘Secular’ means –

(A) Equal respect to all religions

(B) No religion

(D) One national religion

Answer: (A) Explanation: In the Indian context, ‘Secular’ implies that the State treats all religions equally and respects them, without favoring any one religion as the official state religion.

Who presides over the joint sitting of Parliament?

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Vice-President

Answer: (C) Explanation: A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament is called by the President (under Article 108) to resolve a deadlock over a Bill, but it is always presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Who is the custodian of the Indian Constitution?

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Parliament

Answer: (C) Explanation: The Supreme Court of India acts as the guardian and final interpreter of the Constitution, protecting its supremacy and upholding the rule of law.

Which House has more powers in financial matters?

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Rajya Sabha

(D) Depends on President

Answer: (A) Explanation: The Lok Sabha has more powers in financial matters, particularly with Money Bills. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha has limited powers to delay or suggest amendments, but cannot reject it.

Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha?

(A) Speaker

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Chief Justice

Answer: (C) Explanation: The Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President of India, usually on the advice of the Prime Minister, before the completion of its five-year term.

Which Article provides for Finance Commission?

(A) 280

(B) 281

(D) 283

Answer: (A) Explanation: Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission, which is constituted every five years by the President to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States.

Which Commission deals with the distribution of tax revenue between Centre and States?

(A) Planning Commission

(B) NITI Aayog

(D) Election Commission

Answer: (C) Explanation: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that primarily recommends the devolution of central taxes to states and the principles governing grants-in-aid to states, thus dealing with the distribution of tax revenue.

Which body decides the disqualification of MPs under Anti-Defection?

(A) President

(B) Vice-President

(D) Supreme Court

Answer: (C) Explanation: The power to decide on questions of disqualification of a member of a House on the ground of defection is vested in the Presiding Officer of the House (the Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha, and the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha).

Which of the following is a justiciable right?

(A) Right to Education

(B) Directive Principles

(D) Uniform Civil Code

Answer: (A) Explanation: A justiciable right is one that can be enforced by a court of law. The Right to Education (Article 21A), made a Fundamental Right by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002, is a justiciable right. Directive Principles are non-justiciable.

The concept of welfare state is enshrined in –

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Preamble

(D) Emergency Provisions

Answer: (C) Explanation: The concept of a ‘welfare state’ in India is predominantly enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV of the Constitution), which aim to establish a social and economic democracy through their implementation.

What is the minimum age for contesting Lok Sabha elections?

(A) 18

(B) 21

(D) 30

Answer: (C) Explanation: The minimum age for a person to be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years.

The Election Commission of India is a –

(A) Statutory body

(B) Constitutional body

(D) Non-governmental body

Answer: (B) Explanation: The Election Commission of India is a permanent and independent constitutional body established directly by the Constitution of India (Article 324) to ensure free and fair elections.

Which Article deals with the Election Commission?

(A) Article 320

(B) Article 324

(D) Article 329

Answer: (B) Explanation: Article 324 of the Constitution provides for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President to be vested in the Election Commission.

Which Article deals with freedom of speech and expression?

(A) 14

(B) 15

(D) 21

Answer: (C) Explanation: Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression as a Fundamental Right.

Protection of life and personal liberty is provided under Article –

(A) 19

(B) 20

(D) 22

Answer: (C) Explanation: Article 21 of the Constitution states that “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.” This is a cornerstone of fundamental rights.

Right to Constitutional Remedies is provided under –

(A) Article 32

(B) Article 226

(D) Article 16

Answer: (A) Explanation: Article 32 is known as the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’. It empowers the Supreme Court to enforce the Fundamental Rights and is considered the “heart and soul” of the Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. Article 226 provides similar powers to High Courts.

The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by –

(A) President

(B) Parliament

(D) Cabinet

Answer: (C) Explanation: Fundamental Rights are justiciable, meaning they are enforceable by the courts. Citizens can directly approach the Supreme Court (under Article 32) or the High Courts (under Article 226) for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights.

Secularism in the Indian context means –

(A) Irreligion

(B) Equal treatment of all religions

(D) Theocracy

Answer: (B) Explanation: Indian secularism implies “equal treatment of all religions” by the state, where the state maintains a principled distance from all religions and supports all religions equally.

Which of the following is a federal feature of Indian polity?

(A) Single citizenship

(B) Independent judiciary

(D) Strong Centre

Answer: (B) Explanation: An independent judiciary, with the power of judicial review, is a key federal feature as it acts as an arbiter of disputes between the Centre and states, ensuring the constitutional division of powers. Single citizenship, common election commission, and a strong Centre are unitary features.

Which part of the Constitution contains Fundamental Rights?

(A) Part I

(B) Part II

(D) Part IV

Answer: (C) Explanation: Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution (Articles 12-35).

The power to amend the Constitution lies with –

(A) Supreme Court

(B) President

(D) Constituent Assembly

Answer: (C) Explanation: The power to amend the Constitution is vested exclusively in the Parliament of India, as per Article 368.

Emergency due to financial instability is mentioned in Article –

(A) 352

(B) 356

(D) 365

Answer: (C) Explanation: Financial Emergency is proclaimed under Article 360 of the Constitution when the financial stability or credit of India, or any part of its territory, is threatened.

Which Article gives special status to Jammu & Kashmir (prior to abrogation)?

(A) 360

(B) 370

(D) 372

Answer: (B) Explanation: Article 370 of the Constitution of India granted special autonomous status to the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir. This article was abrogated in August 2019.

Who appoints the Governors of States?

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Vice-President

Answer: (A) Explanation: The Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal. The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.

How long can the President’s Rule remain in a state without parliamentary approval?

(A) 3 months

(B) 6 months

(D) Indefinitely

Answer: (B) Explanation: A proclamation of President’s Rule must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. If approved, it remains in force for six months.

Which of the following bodies is not mentioned in the Constitution?

(A) UPSC

(B) NITI Aayog

(D) Election Commission

Answer: (B) Explanation: NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established in 2015 to replace the Planning Commission. It is an extra-constitutional body. UPSC, Finance Commission, and Election Commission are constitutional bodies.

Which schedule contains forms of oaths and affirmations?

(A) Second

(B) Third

(D) Sixth

Answer: (B) Explanation: The Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the forms of oaths or affirmations for various constitutional functionaries, including Union Ministers, members of Parliament, judges, etc.

The Governor can reserve a bill for the President under –

(A) Article 200

(B) Article 201

(D) Article 203

Answer: (A) Explanation: Article 200 of the Constitution grants the Governor the power to reserve a Bill passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President.

Which Article empowers Parliament to make laws on state subjects?

(A) 249

(B) 250

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) Explanation: Articles 249, 250, and 252 are all provisions that empower Parliament to make laws on subjects enumerated in the State List under specific circumstances (e.g., in national interest, during emergency, or with consent of states). Thus, “All of the above” is the correct answer.

Right to Education became a Fundamental Right by which amendment?

(A) 86th

(B) 92nd

(D) 94th

Answer: (A) Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A in the Constitution, making the Right to Education a Fundamental Right for children between 6 and 14 years of age.

The system of Panchayati Raj was first introduced in –

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Punjab

(D) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (A) Explanation: The modern system of Panchayati Raj was first inaugurated by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru in Nagaur district, Rajasthan, on October 2, 1959.

Which part of the Constitution deals with Panchayats?

(A) Part VIII

(B) Part IX

(D) Part XI

Answer: (B) Explanation: Part IX of the Constitution, titled “The Panchayats,” was added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, to formalize and strengthen the Panchayati Raj system.

Article 280 deals with –

(A) Planning Commission

(B) Election Commission

(D) NITI Aayog

Answer: (C) Explanation: Article 280 deals with the Finance Commission, a quasi-judicial body constituted by the President every five years.

How many members can the President nominate to the Rajya Sabha?

(A) 10

(B) 12

(D) 15

Answer: (B) Explanation: The President can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service.

Which House is called the ‘Upper House’ of Parliament?

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Rajya Sabha

(D) None

Answer: (B) Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is known as the ‘Upper House’ of the Indian Parliament, while the Lok Sabha is the ‘Lower House’.

What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha?

(A) 500

(B) 520

(D) 552

Answer: (D) Explanation: The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 552 members (530 from states, 20 from UTs, and 2 nominated Anglo-Indians, though the latter provision has been removed by the 104th Amendment Act, 2019).

Money Bill can be introduced only in –

(A) Rajya Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha

(D) Joint Sitting

Answer: (B) Explanation: A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People), as per Article 109.

The Planning Commission was replaced by –

(A) NITI Aayog

(B) Finance Commission

(D) CAG

Answer: (A) Explanation: The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) on January 1, 2015, by a resolution of the Union Cabinet.

The current form of Indian federalism is best described as –

(A) Cooperative

(B) Dual

(D) Confederal

Answer: (A) Explanation: Indian federalism is often described as ‘cooperative federalism’ due to the significant interaction and interdependence between the Centre and states, and various mechanisms for cooperation, despite a strong central bias.

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