MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- The term ‘socialist’ in the Preamble implies –
(A) Nationalization of all means of production
(B) Equal distribution of wealth and opportunity
(C) Classless society
(D) Government ownership of land
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The term ‘socialist’, added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976), implies equal distribution of wealth and opportunity, promoting social and economic justice. Indian socialism, as interpreted in D.S. Nakara (1983), focuses on reducing inequalities, not nationalizing all production or creating a classless society. - Which Article provides for equal pay for equal work for both men and women?
(A) Article 38
(B) Article 39(a)
(C) Article 39(d)
(D) Article 42
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 39(d), a Directive Principle, mandates the state to ensure equal pay for equal work for men and women, promoting gender equality in employment. Judicially reinforced in Randhir Singh (1982), it guides policy, unlike Article 42 (maternity relief). - Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Article 14 – Equality before law
(B) Article 21 – Right to life
(C) Article 25 – Right to property
(D) Article 32 – Right to constitutional remedies
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 25 deals with freedom of religion, not the right to property, which was removed as a Fundamental Right (Article 31) by the 44th Amendment (1978) and is now a legal right under Article 300A. The other pairs are correctly matched. - Which part of the Constitution deals with the amendment process?
(A) Part XX
(B) Part XIX
(C) Part XVIII
(D) Part XXI
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Part XX (Article 368) outlines the amendment process for the Constitution, requiring a special majority in Parliament and, for certain provisions, state ratification. This ensures flexibility while protecting the basic structure, as established in Kesavananda Bharati (1973). - The right to vote in India is –
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Constitutional Right
(C) Legal Right
(D) Natural Right
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The right to vote is a legal right under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, derived from Article 326 (adult suffrage). It is not a Fundamental Right (justiciable under Part III) or a Constitutional Right (like Article 32), but a statutory entitlement, as clarified in PUCL v. Union of India (2003). - Which Article deals with the establishment of Village Panchayats?
(A) Article 39
(B) Article 40
(C) Article 41
(D) Article 42
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 40, a Directive Principle, directs the state to organize village panchayats as units of self-government, promoting rural democracy. Formalized by the 73rd Amendment (1992), it underpins the Panchayati Raj system, distinct from Article 39 (economic justice). - The Constitution of India declares India as –
(A) Union of States
(B) Federal State
(C) Quasi-Federal State
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 1 declares India as a “Union of States”, emphasizing a strong Centre with indivisible sovereignty. While scholars describe it as quasi-federal due to federal and unitary features, the Constitution uses “Union” to signify national unity, as noted by Dr. Ambedkar. - Who among the following has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha?
(A) Speaker
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Chief Justice
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 85, the President dissolves the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, triggering elections. The Speaker manages House proceedings, and the Chief Justice has no role in dissolution. - Which Article deals with the promotion of international peace and security?
(A) Article 50
(B) Article 51
(C) Article 52
(D) Article 53
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 51, a Directive Principle, directs the state to promote international peace and security, encouraging respect for international law and treaty obligations. It reflects India’s commitment to global harmony, guiding foreign policy without being justiciable. - The Rajya Sabha has exclusive power in –
(A) Creating All India Services
(B) Impeaching the President
(C) Amending the Constitution
(D) Passing Money Bills
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 312, the Rajya Sabha has exclusive power to authorize the creation of All India Services by a two-thirds majority resolution, ensuring uniformity in administration. Impeachment (Article 61), amendments (Article 368), and Money Bills (Article 109) involve both Houses, with Lok Sabha dominance in the latter. - Which constitutional authority performs the function of auditing the accounts of the Union and States?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) CAG
(D) NITI Aayog
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), under Articles 148–151, audits Union and state accounts, ensuring financial transparency. The Finance Commission allocates revenues, the Election Commission conducts elections, and NITI Aayog focuses on policy planning. - Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of monuments and places of national importance?
(A) Article 47
(B) Article 48
(C) Article 49
(D) Article 50
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 49, a Directive Principle, mandates the state to protect monuments and places of national importance, promoting cultural preservation through laws like the Ancient Monuments Act, 1958. Article 48 addresses animal husbandry, and Article 50 judicial independence. - Who appoints the State Election Commission?
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Election Commission of India
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 243K, the Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner to conduct Panchayat and municipal elections, ensuring local electoral independence. The Election Commission of India oversees national and state elections, not local bodies. - How many members can the President nominate to the Rajya Sabha?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 16
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 80, the President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha for their contributions to arts, literature, science, or social services, enhancing the House’s expertise. The total strength is 245 (233 elected, 12 nominated). - The maximum number of members in the Lok Sabha is –
(A) 542
(B) 543
(C) 545
(D) 552
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 81, the Lok Sabha has a maximum strength of 552 members: up to 530 from states, 20 from Union territories, and 2 Anglo-Indian nominees (abolished by the 104th Amendment, 2019). The current strength is 543 elected members. - Which Article of the Constitution abolished untouchability?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 17
(C) Article 18
(D) Article 19
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability and prohibits its practice, a Fundamental Right under Part III, reinforced by the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. It addresses social discrimination, distinct from Article 16 (employment equality) or Article 18 (titles abolition). - The Parliament of India consists of –
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) President and Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha and President
(D) President, Rajya Sabha, and Lok Sabha
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 79, the Parliament comprises the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. The President’s role in summoning sessions, granting assent to bills (Article 111), and issuing ordinances (Article 123) makes them integral to the legislative process. - The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in –
(A) Disputes between States
(B) Election disputes
(C) Criminal cases
(D) Civil suits
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 131, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in disputes between states or between the Centre and states, ensuring direct adjudication of federal conflicts. Election disputes (Article 329) and criminal/civil cases typically start in lower courts. - The 52nd Amendment Act is related to –
(A) Education
(B) Panchayati Raj
(C) Anti-defection law
(D) Municipalities
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1985) added the Tenth Schedule, introducing the anti-defection law to disqualify MPs/MLAs for switching parties or defying party whips, promoting political stability. Strengthened by the 91st Amendment (2003). - Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) Dual citizenship
(C) Bicameral legislature
(D) Independent judiciary
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Indian federalism features a written Constitution (Article 1–395), bicameral legislature (Article 79), and independent judiciary (Articles 124, 214). Dual citizenship is absent, as India provides single citizenship (Articles 5–11), unlike federal systems like the USA. - Which Article mentions the Election Commission?
(A) Article 320
(B) Article 321
(C) Article 324
(D) Article 326
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 324 establishes the Election Commission of India, responsible for conducting Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, Presidential, and state legislative elections. Article 326 defines adult suffrage, while Articles 320–321 pertain to public service commissions. - Which amendment is associated with the introduction of GST in India?
(A) 100th
(B) 101st
(C) 102nd
(D) 103rd
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (2016) introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST), amending the Seventh Schedule and adding Article 279A for the GST Council, unifying India’s indirect tax regime, effective from July 1, 2017. - What is the term of the Rajya Sabha member?
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) 7 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 83, a Rajya Sabha member serves a six-year term, with one-third of members retiring every two years, ensuring continuity as a permanent body. This contrasts with the Lok Sabha’s five-year term, subject to dissolution. - The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by –
(A) President
(B) Lok Sabha members
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Chief Justice
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 93, the Speaker is elected by Lok Sabha members from among themselves, ensuring impartial conduct of House proceedings. The President or Prime Minister has no role, preserving legislative autonomy. - The Right to Information became a legal right in the year –
(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Right to Information (RTI) Act, enacted in 2005, established the right to information as a legal right, enabling citizens to access public authority records. Rooted in Article 19(1)(a) (freedom of speech), it promotes transparency and accountability. - Which of the following has the power to make laws on subjects in the State List during emergency?
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) State Legislature
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 356 (National Emergency), Parliament can legislate on State List subjects if a state’s constitutional machinery fails, as per Article 250. This centralizes power during crises, overriding state legislative authority. - Which of the following amendments curtailed the power of judicial review?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 52nd Amendment
(D) 73rd Amendment
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) curtailed judicial review by adding clauses to Articles 368 and 31C, limiting courts’ ability to challenge laws under Directive Principles. Parts were struck down in Minerva Mills (1980), and the 44th Amendment (1978) restored judicial balance. - How many times can a person be re-elected as the President of India?
(A) Once
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) No limit
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 57, there is no limit on the number of times a person can be re-elected as President, provided they meet eligibility criteria (Article 58). Dr. Rajendra Prasad served two terms (1950–62), the only instance of re-election. - The concept of public interest litigation (PIL) originated in –
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) India
(D) Australia
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated in the USA, where courts addressed public grievances through class-action suits. Adapted in India in the 1980s (S.P. Gupta, 1981), PIL allows citizens to seek justice for public issues, expanding access to courts under Articles 32 and 226. - Which Article mentions the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(A) Article 147
(B) Article 148
(C) Article 149
(D) Article 150
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 148 establishes the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), defining their appointment and role in auditing public accounts. Article 149 details duties, ensuring financial oversight of Union and state expenditures. - What is the tenure of the Vice-President of India?
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) 7 years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 67, the Vice-President serves a five-year term, elected by an electoral college of both Houses of Parliament. They can be re-elected, and as Rajya Sabha Chairman (Article 64), they play a key legislative role. - The power to declare Financial Emergency lies with –
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) President
(D) Finance Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 360, the President can declare a Financial Emergency if India’s financial stability is threatened, on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Never invoked, it allows the Centre to control state finances and reduce salaries. - Which constitutional amendment added the 10th Schedule?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 52nd
(D) 73rd
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1985) added the Tenth Schedule, introducing the anti-defection law to curb MPs/MLAs switching parties. Strengthened by the 91st Amendment (2003), it ensures legislative stability. - Which language was the first to be added to the 8th Schedule after 1950?
(A) Sindhi
(B) Konkani
(C) Manipuri
(D) Bodo
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Sindhi was the first language added to the Eighth Schedule by the 21st Amendment Act (1967), increasing the list from 14 to 15 languages. Konkani, Manipuri, and others were added later via the 71st Amendment (1992). - The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to –
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Parliament
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 75, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, ensuring accountability to the elected lower house in India’s parliamentary system. This allows the Lok Sabha to pass a no-confidence motion to remove the government. - The basic structure doctrine was reaffirmed in which case?
(A) Golaknath case
(B) Minerva Mills case
(C) S.R. Bommai case
(D) Maneka Gandhi case
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The basic structure doctrine, established in Kesavananda Bharati (1973), was reaffirmed in Minerva Mills (1980), striking down parts of the 42nd Amendment that limited judicial review. It protects core constitutional features like federalism and fundamental rights. - Which Article deals with prohibition of child labour?
(A) Article 21A
(B) Article 23
(C) Article 24
(D) Article 25
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 in hazardous occupations, part of the Right against Exploitation. Supported by laws like the Child Labour Act, 1986, it complements Article 23 (forced labor prohibition). - The power to appoint the Chief Justice of India lies with –
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Supreme Court Collegium
(D) Parliament
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 124, the President appoints the Chief Justice of India, typically following the Supreme Court Collegium’s recommendation, as per the Second Judges Case (1993). The collegium proposes, but the President formally appoints, balancing executive and judicial roles. - The concept of ‘Directive Principles’ in Indian Constitution is borrowed from –
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) Ireland
(D) Russia
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36–51) are borrowed from the Irish Constitution (1937), guiding the state toward social and economic justice. Non-justiciable, they reflect Ireland’s emphasis on state obligations, as noted by Dr. Ambedkar. - Which Article empowers the High Courts to issue writs?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 226
(C) Article 136
(D) Article 142
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, etc.) for enforcing Fundamental Rights and other legal rights, with a broader scope than Article 32 (Supreme Court). This ensures accessible justice at the state level. - Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
(A) Pay taxes
(B) Respect Constitution
(C) Safeguard public property
(D) Value and preserve heritage
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 51A lists 11 Fundamental Duties, including respecting the Constitution, safeguarding public property, and preserving heritage. Paying taxes is a legal obligation under tax laws, not a Fundamental Duty, distinguishing statutory from constitutional responsibilities. - The authority to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court lies with –
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 124, Parliament determines the number of Supreme Court judges through legislation. The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, amended in 2019, set the strength at 34 (including the Chief Justice), balancing judicial workload and efficiency. - Which Article defines the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 132
(C) Article 133
(D) Article 134
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 131 defines the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction in disputes between the Centre and states or between states, ensuring direct adjudication of federal conflicts. Articles 132–134 cover appellate jurisdiction for constitutional, civil, and criminal cases. - Who can remove a State Governor from office?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 156, the President can remove a Governor, who serves at the President’s pleasure. Removal is typically on the advice of the Council of Ministers, reflecting the Centre’s authority over state constitutional heads. - The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued to –
(A) Prevent illegal taxation
(B) Prevent illegal arrest
(C) Ensure public order
(D) Prevent bonded labour
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The writ of Habeas Corpus, issued under Articles 32 and 226, protects against illegal arrest or detention, ensuring personal liberty by requiring the detaining authority to produce the person before the court. It does not address taxation or public order. - The 11th Schedule was added by –
(A) 72nd Amendment
(B) 73rd Amendment
(C) 74th Amendment
(D) 75th Amendment
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) added the Eleventh Schedule, listing 29 subjects (e.g., agriculture, rural development) under Panchayati Raj Institutions, empowering decentralized rural governance. The 74th Amendment added the Twelfth Schedule for municipalities. - Which schedule deals with anti-defection?
(A) 8th
(B) 9th
(C) 10th
(D) 11th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act (1985), contains the anti-defection law, disqualifying MPs/MLAs for defection. It promotes political stability, with provisions strengthened by the 91st Amendment (2003). - Who was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court?
(A) Leila Seth
(B) Indu Malhotra
(C) Fathima Beevi
(D) Ruma Pal
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Justice M. Fathima Beevi was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court, appointed in 1989, marking a milestone in judicial gender representation. Leila Seth was a High Court Chief Justice, while Indu Malhotra and Ruma Pal joined the Supreme Court later. - Which institution is responsible for framing India’s Five-Year Plans?
(A) RBI
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Planning Commission (now replaced by NITI Aayog)
(D) Ministry of Finance
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Planning Commission, established in 1950, framed Five-Year Plans for economic development until its replacement by NITI Aayog in 2015. NITI Aayog adopts a cooperative federalism approach, distinct from the Finance Commission’s revenue role or RBI’s monetary functions. - Which Article provides for the official language of the Union?
(A) Article 341
(B) Article 342
(C) Article 343
(D) Article 344
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 343 designates Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union, with English for official purposes until Parliament decides otherwise. Article 344 deals with the Official Language Commission, ensuring linguistic coordination.