MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from which country’s constitution?
(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) Canada
(D) France
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Fundamental Rights in Part III (Articles 12–35) of the Indian Constitution are inspired by the US Constitution, particularly its Bill of Rights. Rights like equality, freedom, and constitutional remedies mirror US provisions, adapted to India’s socio-political context, ensuring individual liberties against state action. - Which Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in 2000 to provide for National Commission for SCs and STs?
(A) 86th Amendment
(B) 89th Amendment
(C) 90th Amendment
(D) 91st Amendment
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act (2003, not 2000; correcting the question’s year) amended Article 338 and added Article 338A, establishing separate National Commissions for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and Scheduled Tribes (NCST), effective from 2004, to focus on their respective safeguards. - The Central Administrative Tribunal was set up under which Article?
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 323B
(C) Article 320
(D) Article 312
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 323A, added by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976), provides for the establishment of Central Administrative Tribunals (CAT) to adjudicate disputes related to Union and state public services. CAT, set up in 1985, ensures speedy resolution of service-related grievances. - The National Commission for Backward Classes got constitutional status through –
(A) 100th Amendment
(B) 101st Amendment
(C) 102nd Amendment
(D) 103rd Amendment
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act (2018) added Article 338B, granting constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), and Article 342A, empowering the President to specify backward classes, strengthening their representation and welfare mechanisms. - Which one of the following was added to the Directive Principles by the 42nd Amendment?
(A) Free legal aid
(B) Uniform Civil Code
(C) Participation of workers in industries
(D) Education to children under 14
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) added Article 39A to the Directive Principles, mandating free legal aid to ensure equal access to justice. Uniform Civil Code (Article 44) and workers’ participation (Article 43A, also 42nd) predate or align, but education was amended later (86th Amendment). - The power of judicial review in India is vested with –
(A) High Courts only
(B) Supreme Court only
(C) Both Supreme Court and High Courts
(D) Parliament
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Judicial review is vested in both the Supreme Court (Articles 13, 32) and High Courts (Article 226), enabling them to strike down laws or actions violating the Constitution. This shared power, rooted in the US model, ensures constitutional supremacy, as seen in Kesavananda Bharati (1973). - Which of the following languages is not recognized in the 8th Schedule?
(A) Bodo
(B) Maithili
(C) Tulu
(D) Santhali
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists 22 official languages, including Bodo, Maithili, and Santhali, added by the 92nd Amendment (2003). Tulu, despite cultural significance in Karnataka, is not included, highlighting the schedule’s selective recognition of linguistic diversity. - Which Article deals with the annual Financial Statement (Union Budget)?
(A) Article 110
(B) Article 111
(C) Article 112
(D) Article 113
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 112 mandates the President to present the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget) before Parliament, detailing estimated receipts and expenditures. It forms the basis for parliamentary approval of the government’s fiscal policy, presented annually by the Finance Minister. - Which one of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Single Citizenship
(B) Independent Judiciary
(C) Presidential System
(D) Parliamentary Government
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution features single citizenship (Article 5–11), an independent judiciary (Articles 124, 214), and a parliamentary government (Articles 74, 75). The Presidential System, with a directly elected executive, is absent, as India follows the Westminster model. - Which Article grants special status to the state of Maharashtra and Gujarat?
(A) Article 371
(B) Article 371A
(C) Article 371B
(D) Article 371D
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 371 provides special provisions for Maharashtra and Gujarat, including measures for Vidarbha and Saurashtra’s development, such as regional boards. Other articles like 371A (Nagaland) or 371D (Andhra Pradesh) address different states’ unique needs. - How many Schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution has 12 Schedules, covering subjects like Union and state powers (Seventh), languages (Eighth), and local governance (Eleventh, Twelfth). Originally eight, new schedules were added via amendments like the 73rd and 74th (1992) for Panchayats and Municipalities. - Which Article of the Constitution provides for the Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship?
(A) Article 5
(B) Article 10
(C) Article 11
(D) Article 12
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 11 empowers Parliament to make laws regulating citizenship, including acquisition and termination. This enables legislation like the Citizenship Act, 1955, which governs citizenship beyond the initial provisions of Articles 5–8 at the Constitution’s commencement. - Which Article prohibits discrimination in public employment?
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 17
(D) Article 18
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in public employment, prohibiting discrimination on grounds like religion, caste, or sex. It allows reservations for backward classes, complementing Article 15 (general non-discrimination) and Article 17 (untouchability abolition). - Which Article empowers the President to appoint a Commission for SCs?
(A) Article 338
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 340
(D) Article 341
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 338 provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), appointed by the President, to monitor safeguards for SCs. Originally covering SCs and STs, it was split into NCSC and NCST (Article 338A) by the 89th Amendment (2003). - Which schedule deals with the powers of Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(A) 9th
(B) 10th
(C) 11th
(D) 12th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Eleventh Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment Act (1992), lists 29 subjects (e.g., agriculture, rural development) under Panchayati Raj Institutions, empowering them for decentralized governance, distinct from the Twelfth Schedule for municipalities. - Who can be the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 64, the Vice-President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, presiding over its proceedings and ensuring impartial conduct. This role distinguishes them from the Lok Sabha Speaker or other constitutional figures. - The 73rd Amendment Act is related to –
(A) Cooperative societies
(B) Municipalities
(C) Panchayati Raj
(D) Anti-defection
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule, granting constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions with a three-tier structure, empowering rural local governance. The 74th Amendment addresses municipalities. - What is the maximum period for which a Money Bill can be delayed by the Rajya Sabha?
(A) 10 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 15 days
(D) 30 days
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 109, the Rajya Sabha can delay a Money Bill for a maximum of 14 days by making recommendations, after which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject them. This ensures the Lok Sabha’s primacy in financial legislation. - The term ‘Secular’ in the Preamble was added by –
(A) 40th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 46th Amendment
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) added ‘Secular’ to the Preamble, emphasizing India’s commitment to equal treatment of all religions. This reinforced Articles 25–28, promoting state neutrality in religious matters, as upheld in S.R. Bommai (1994). - In case of conflict between Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights, which shall prevail?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles
(C) Parliament’s discretion
(D) Judiciary’s discretion
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Fundamental Rights (Part III) prevail over Directive Principles (Part IV) in case of conflict, as they are justiciable, while Directive Principles are non-justiciable. The Supreme Court (e.g., Minerva Mills, 1980) ensures this balance, protecting constitutional rights while guiding state policy. - The Model Code of Conduct is enforced by –
(A) President
(B) Election Commission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Parliament
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Election Commission of India, under Article 324, enforces the Model Code of Conduct during elections to ensure fairness and neutrality. This non-statutory code regulates political parties and candidates, maintaining the integrity of the electoral process. - Which Article provides for free and compulsory education for children?
(A) Article 45
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 21A
(D) Article 47
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 21A, added by the 86th Amendment Act (2002), provides free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 as a Fundamental Right, supported by the Right to Education Act, 2009. Article 45 (Directive Principle) focuses on early childhood care. - What is the minimum age for a person to be a member of Rajya Sabha?
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 40 years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 80, the minimum age to become a Rajya Sabha member is 30 years, ensuring maturity for representing states in the Council of States. This contrasts with the Lok Sabha and state assemblies, which require 25 years (Article 84). - Which body conducts the decennial Census in India?
(A) NITI Aayog
(B) Ministry of Statistics
(C) Registrar General & Census Commissioner
(D) Home Ministry
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, conducts the decennial Census under the Census Act, 1948. The 2021 Census (delayed) provides critical demographic data for policy and delimitation, distinct from NITI Aayog’s role. - Which Article deals with the duties of the Comptroller and Auditor General?
(A) Article 148
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 150
(D) Article 151
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 149 outlines the duties of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), including auditing Union and state accounts to ensure financial accountability. Article 148 establishes the office, while Article 151 mandates report submission to the President or Governor. - The Prime Minister is appointed by –
(A) President
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Governor
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 75, the President appoints the Prime Minister, typically the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha, who then forms the Council of Ministers. This reflects India’s parliamentary system, where the executive derives legitimacy from the legislature. - Which one of the following is NOT a Union Territory?
(A) Lakshadweep
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Nagaland
(D) Chandigarh
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Nagaland is a state, created in 1963, with full legislative powers under Article 371A. Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu (merged with Dadra and Nagar Haveli), and Chandigarh are among India’s eight Union Territories, administered by the Centre under Article 239. - The maximum number of Anglo-Indian members nominated to Lok Sabha was –
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 331, the President could nominate up to two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha if the community was underrepresented. This provision was abolished by the 104th Amendment Act (2019), effective from 2020, reducing the Lok Sabha’s strength to 543 elected members. - Right to Constitutional Remedies is covered under which Article?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 33
(C) Article 34
(D) Article 35
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 32 provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies, enabling citizens to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights through writs. Dr. Ambedkar called it the “heart and soul” of the Constitution, ensuring direct access to justice. - Who presides over the joint session of Parliament?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 118, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint session of Parliament, summoned by the President (Article 108) to resolve legislative deadlocks, such as on non-money bills. The Deputy Speaker or a designated member may substitute if required. - The term of a State Legislative Council is –
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) Permanent body
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The State Legislative Council, under Article 172, is a permanent body, not subject to dissolution, with one-third of its members retiring every two years, similar to the Rajya Sabha. This ensures continuity in state bicameral legislatures, unlike assemblies (five years). - Which Article gives Parliament the power to amend the Constitution?
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 372
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 368 empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by a special majority (two-thirds present and voting, plus absolute majority in some cases). The basic structure doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973) limits this power, ensuring core principles remain intact. - Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Attorney General
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Attorney General (Article 76) holds office during the pleasure of the President, serving as the Union’s chief legal advisor without a fixed term. The Chief Election Commissioner, CAG, and Chief Justice have constitutional protections or fixed tenures, ensuring their independence. - Which Fundamental Right was described by Dr. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Education
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) as the “heart and soul” of the Constitution, as it allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court to enforce Fundamental Rights, ensuring their effectiveness and judicial protection. - The power to grant a pardon under Article 72 is exercised by –
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice
(C) President
(D) Parliament
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, or commutations for offenses under Union laws, including death sentences. Exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers, this power reflects executive mercy within the constitutional framework. - The Constitution describes India as –
(A) Federal
(B) Union of States
(C) Confederation
(D) Quasi-federal
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 1 describes India as a “Union of States”, emphasizing a strong Centre with indivisible sovereignty. While quasi-federal (per scholars like K.C. Wheare) due to federal and unitary features, the Constitution uses “Union” to signify national unity over state autonomy. - Which of the following is not a writ issued by the court?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Decree
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, and Certiorari are writs issued by the Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Courts (Article 226) to protect rights or correct legal errors. A decree is a judicial order in civil suits, not a constitutional writ. - The members of the UPSC are appointed by –
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Home Minister
(D) Speaker
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 316, the President appoints the Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), ensuring independence in recruiting civil servants. The UPSC’s autonomy is safeguarded by constitutional provisions, distinct from executive or legislative control. - Which Amendment Act reduced the voting age to 18 years?
(A) 60th
(B) 61st
(C) 62nd
(D) 63rd
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act (1988) amended Article 326, lowering the voting age from 21 to 18 for Lok Sabha and state assembly elections, expanding democratic participation and aligning with global norms for adult suffrage. - How many Fundamental Duties are there in the Constitution?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 51A lists 11 Fundamental Duties, added by the 42nd Amendment (1976) with 10 duties and the 86th Amendment (2002) adding the duty to provide education to children aged 6–14. These non-justiciable duties promote civic responsibility. - Which constitutional body advises on distribution of revenues between Centre and States?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Inter-State Council
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Finance Commission, constituted every five years under Article 280, advises on the distribution of tax revenues and grants-in-aid between the Centre and states, ensuring fiscal federalism. The Inter-State Council focuses on coordination, not revenue. - Which Article states that the State shall not deny any person equality before the law?
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 15
(D) Article 16
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws to all persons within India, forming the cornerstone of the Right to Equality. It ensures non-discrimination, as interpreted in cases like Maneka Gandhi (1978). - Which part of the Constitution deals with Panchayats?
(A) IX
(B) IXA
(C) X
(D) XIA
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Part IX (Articles 243–243O), added by the 73rd Amendment Act (1992), deals with Panchayats, outlining their structure, powers, and elections. Part IXA covers municipalities, while Part X addresses scheduled and tribal areas. - Which body is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and States?
(A) Attorney General
(B) UPSC
(C) CAG
(D) Finance Commission
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), under Articles 148–151, audits the accounts of the Union and states, ensuring financial transparency. CAG reports to the President or Governor, distinguishing its role from the Finance Commission’s advisory function. - How many members are there in Rajya Sabha at present (as of 2024)?
(A) 240
(B) 243
(C) 245
(D) 250
Answer: (C)
Explanation: As of 2024, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members: 233 elected from states and Union territories (Fourth Schedule) and 12 nominated by the President (Article 80). The total is below the constitutional maximum of 250, reflecting current allocations. - Which article mentions protection of monuments of national importance?
(A) Article 48
(B) Article 49
(C) Article 50
(D) Article 51
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 49, a Directive Principle, mandates the state to protect monuments and places of national importance, promoting cultural heritage preservation. Supported by laws like the Ancient Monuments Act, 1958, it guides state policy without being justiciable. - The Union Public Service Commission submits its annual report to –
(A) Parliament
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 323, the UPSC submits its annual report to the President, who lays it before Parliament. This ensures accountability in civil service recruitment while maintaining the UPSC’s independence from direct executive or judicial oversight. - Which Fundamental Right is guaranteed to both citizens and foreigners?
(A) Right to Speech
(B) Right to Life
(C) Right to Form Associations
(D) Right to Education
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21) is guaranteed to both citizens and foreigners within India, as upheld in cases like K.S. Puttaswamy (2017). Rights like speech (Article 19(1)(a)) and associations (Article 19(1)(c)) are citizen-specific, while education (Article 21A) applies to children. - Which schedule contains the forms of oaths and affirmations?
(A) Second
(B) Third
(C) Fourth
(D) Fifth
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Third Schedule contains forms of oaths and affirmations for constitutional officeholders like the President, Governor, and MPs, ensuring their commitment to uphold the Constitution. The Fourth Schedule deals with Rajya Sabha seat allocations. - The Sarkaria Commission is related to –
(A) Election reforms
(B) Panchayati Raj
(C) Centre-State relations
(D) Women empowerment
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission (1983–88) examined Centre-State relations, recommending measures like establishing the Inter-State Council (Article 263) to enhance cooperative federalism. Its focus was on federal balance, not elections, local governance, or gender issues.