MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- Which article empowers the High Court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
(A) Article 226
(B) Article 227
(C) Article 228
(D) Article 229
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto) for enforcing Fundamental Rights and other legal rights. Its broader scope compared to Article 32 (Supreme Court) ensures accessible justice at the state level. - The concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from which country?
(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) Canada
(D) Australia
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The concept of judicial review, enabling courts to strike down unconstitutional laws, is borrowed from the USA. Enshrined in Articles 13, 32, and 226, it empowers the Supreme Court and High Courts to protect the Constitution’s supremacy, as seen in Kesavananda Bharati (1973). - The ‘Residuary Powers’ under Indian Constitution are vested in –
(A) State Legislature
(B) Union Parliament
(C) Both Centre and State
(D) President
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Residuary powers, covering subjects not listed in the Seventh Schedule, are vested in the Union Parliament under Article 248. This strengthens the Centre’s authority in India’s quasi-federal system, ensuring uniformity on unenumerated matters like new technologies. - What is the retirement age for High Court judges?
(A) 60 years
(B) 62 years
(C) 65 years
(D) 68 years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 217, High Court judges retire at 62 years, balancing experience and turnover in the judiciary. This contrasts with Supreme Court judges (65 years, Article 124), ensuring distinct tenures for state and Union judicial roles. - The Inter-State Council was constituted under which Article?
(A) Article 262
(B) Article 263
(C) Article 264
(D) Article 265
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 263 provides for the Inter-State Council, established in 1990 following the Sarkaria Committee’s recommendation. It fosters coordination on Centre-state and inter-state issues, such as taxation or resource disputes, strengthening cooperative federalism. - Which article deals with the establishment of the Supreme Court?
(A) Article 124
(B) Article 125
(C) Article 126
(D) Article 127
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 124 establishes the Supreme Court of India, detailing its composition, appointment of judges, and jurisdiction. It defines the Court as the apex judicial body, operational since January 28, 1950, safeguarding constitutional supremacy. - Which Fundamental Right ensures the abolition of untouchability?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 17
(D) Article 18
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, backed by the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. This Fundamental Right under Part III promotes social equality, addressing historical discrimination against marginalized communities. - The Planning Commission was established in the year –
(A) 1947
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Planning Commission was established on March 15, 1950, by a Union Cabinet resolution to formulate five-year plans for economic development. It was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015, shifting to a policy-focused think-tank model. - Who has the power to decide whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or not?
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 110, the Speaker of Lok Sabha has the final authority to certify a bill as a Money Bill, which limits the Rajya Sabha’s role to recommendations. This ensures the Lok Sabha’s primacy in financial legislation, as seen in budget processes. - Which Article provides for special status to Jammu and Kashmir (before abrogation)?
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 375
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 370 granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir, allowing it autonomy in internal affairs until its abrogation in 2019 via the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act. It provided for a separate constitution and restricted Union legislative powers. - Which part of the Constitution deals with emergency provisions?
(A) Part XV
(B) Part XVI
(C) Part XVII
(D) Part XVIII
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Part XVIII (Articles 352–360) covers emergency provisions, including National Emergency (Article 352), State Emergency (Article 356), and Financial Emergency (Article 360). These provisions balance crisis management with constitutional safeguards, amended by the 44th Amendment (1978). - The Constitution of India is –
(A) Rigid
(B) Flexible
(C) Partly rigid and partly flexible
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution is partly rigid and partly flexible. Article 368 requires a special majority for amendments to key provisions (e.g., Fundamental Rights), while others (e.g., new states under Article 3) need a simple majority, balancing stability and adaptability. - Who administers the oath of office to the Governor?
(A) President
(B) Chief Justice of High Court
(C) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
(D) Chief Minister
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 159, the Chief Justice of the High Court (or a senior judge in their absence) administers the oath of office to the Governor, ensuring constitutional solemnity. This reflects the Governor’s role as the state’s constitutional head. - Which schedule deals with division of powers between Union and States?
(A) Fifth
(B) Sixth
(C) Seventh
(D) Ninth
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule under Article 246 divides legislative powers into the Union List (97 subjects, e.g., defense), State List (66 subjects, e.g., agriculture), and Concurrent List (52 subjects, e.g., education), defining India’s federal structure. - How many types of writs can be issued by courts under the Constitution?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Constitution provides for five types of writs under Articles 32 and 226: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto. These enable the Supreme Court and High Courts to protect rights and ensure legal compliance. - The constitutional head of a Union Territory is –
(A) President
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Lieutenant Governor
(D) Home Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Lieutenant Governor or Administrator, appointed by the President under Article 239, serves as the constitutional head of a Union Territory. In territories like Delhi, they oversee administration, even with an elected Chief Minister (Article 239AA). - Which body recommends the distribution of tax revenues between Centre and States?
(A) NITI Aayog
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Advisory Council
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Finance Commission, constituted every five years under Article 280, recommends the distribution of tax revenues and grants-in-aid between the Centre and states, ensuring fiscal federalism. NITI Aayog focuses on policy, not revenue allocation. - What is the minimum age to become a Governor of a state?
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 40 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 157, the minimum age to become a Governor is 35 years, ensuring maturity for the constitutional role of acting as the state’s executive head and the Centre’s representative in federal governance. - The official language of the Union is –
(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) Hindi in Devanagari script
(D) Hindi and English
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 343 designates Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union, with English for official purposes until Parliament decides otherwise. This dual-language framework ensures effective communication in governance. - Which amendment made the right to education a Fundamental Right?
(A) 85th
(B) 86th
(C) 87th
(D) 88th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002) added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 a Fundamental Right. It also amended Article 45 for early childhood care and added a parental duty under Article 51A(k). - What is the minimum number of sittings required in a year for the Parliament?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) No minimum fixed
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 85, Parliament must hold at least three sittings annually: the Budget Session, Monsoon Session, and Winter Session. This ensures regular legislative activity, though the exact schedule is determined by the government. - What is the function of the Public Accounts Committee?
(A) Examine budget proposals
(B) Scrutinize government expenditure
(C) Approve new laws
(D) Evaluate taxation policies
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee (PAC), comprising members from both Houses, scrutinizes government expenditure based on CAG reports, ensuring financial accountability. It does not examine budgets, approve laws, or evaluate tax policies, which are functions of other bodies. - Which Amendment Act lowered the voting age from 21 to 18?
(A) 59th
(B) 61st
(C) 63rd
(D) 65th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act (1988) amended Article 326, lowering the voting age from 21 to 18 for Lok Sabha and state assembly elections, expanding democratic participation and aligning with global standards for adult suffrage. - Which Article gives the President power to consult the Supreme Court?
(A) Article 141
(B) Article 142
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 144
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 143 allows the President to seek the Supreme Court’s advisory opinion on questions of law or fact of public importance, such as constitutional disputes. The Court’s opinion is non-binding but aids in clarifying complex issues. - Directive Principles are –
(A) Enforceable in court
(B) Politically binding
(C) Non-justiciable
(D) Both enforceable and justiciable
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36–51) are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced in courts. They guide the state toward social and economic justice, as seen in provisions like Article 44 (Uniform Civil Code), but lack legal enforceability. - Which of the following Articles relates to prohibition of traffic in human beings?
(A) Article 22
(B) Article 23
(C) Article 24
(D) Article 25
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labor, ensuring protection against exploitation. Backed by laws like the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, it forms part of the Right against Exploitation alongside Article 24. - The first sitting of the Constituent Assembly was held in –
(A) 1946
(B) 1947
(C) 1948
(D) 1949
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly held its first sitting on December 9, 1946, under Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha as interim President. It began drafting the Constitution, which was adopted on November 26, 1949, marking India’s transition to a republic. - Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental duty?
(A) Respect the Constitution
(B) Promote harmony
(C) Pay taxes
(D) Protect the environment
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 51A lists 11 Fundamental Duties, including respecting the Constitution, promoting harmony, and protecting the environment. Paying taxes is a legal obligation under tax laws, not a Fundamental Duty, distinguishing civic responsibilities from statutory ones. - The Election Commission does not conduct elections for –
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) President
(D) Panchayats
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Election Commission of India, under Article 324, conducts elections for Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President, and state legislatures. Panchayat elections are conducted by State Election Commissions under Article 243K, ensuring local democratic autonomy. - Which Article gives protection against arrest and detention in certain cases?
(A) Article 20
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 22
(D) Article 23
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 22 provides safeguards against arrest and detention, including the right to be informed of grounds, consult a lawyer, and be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours. It balances individual liberty with preventive detention provisions, unlike Article 21 (life and liberty). - The Panchayati Raj system was introduced in India in –
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1957
(D) 1959
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Panchayati Raj system was introduced in 1959, following the Balwantrai Mehta Committee’s recommendation (1957) for decentralized governance. Inaugurated in Nagaur, Rajasthan, it was formalized by the 73rd Amendment (1992), establishing a three-tier structure. - Who presides over the meetings of the State Legislative Assembly?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Governor
(C) Speaker
(D) Deputy Speaker
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 178, the Speaker presides over State Legislative Assembly meetings, ensuring orderly proceedings and impartiality. The Deputy Speaker steps in during their absence, while the Governor and Chief Minister have executive roles, not legislative chairing duties. - Which Amendment Act is known as the ‘Mini Constitution’?
(A) 40th
(B) 42nd
(C) 44th
(D) 52nd
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) is called the ‘Mini Constitution’ due to its extensive changes, including adding Fundamental Duties, the terms ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ to the Preamble, and strengthening Union powers. Parts were later modified by the 44th Amendment. - Which body gives recognition to political parties in India?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) Election Commission
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Election Commission grants recognition to political parties under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and the Election Symbols Order, 1968, classifying them as national or state parties based on electoral performance, ensuring fair election conduct. - In India, the residuary powers are given to –
(A) States
(B) Centre
(C) Both
(D) Governor
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Residuary powers, not listed in the Seventh Schedule, are vested in the Centre under Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List. This strengthens the Union’s authority in India’s quasi-federal system, covering emerging subjects like cybersecurity. - The Constitution was adopted on –
(A) 26 January 1950
(B) 15 August 1947
(C) 26 November 1949
(D) 30 January 1948
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949, and came into force on January 26, 1950. This marked India’s transition to a sovereign republic, replacing the Government of India Act, 1935. - Which schedule deals with powers and responsibilities of Municipalities?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 12th
(D) 13th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 12th Schedule, added by the 74th Amendment Act (1992), lists 18 subjects (e.g., urban planning, public health) under the purview of Municipalities, enabling urban local bodies to function as effective self-governing institutions under Part IXA. - The oath of office to the President is administered by –
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Vice-President
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 60, the Chief Justice of India (or a senior Supreme Court judge in their absence) administers the oath of office to the President, ensuring constitutional solemnity for the Union’s head of state. - Which Article deals with the language to be used in the Supreme Court and High Courts?
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 348
(D) Article 351
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 348 mandates English as the language for proceedings in the Supreme Court and High Courts, unless Parliament prescribes otherwise. It also allows High Courts to use Hindi or regional languages with Presidential approval, ensuring judicial uniformity. - Which Fundamental Right protects the right to form associations or unions?
(A) Article 19(1)(a)
(B) Article 19(1)(b)
(C) Article 19(1)(c)
(D) Article 19(1)(d)
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 19(1)(c) guarantees the right to form associations or unions, part of the Right to Freedom. Subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(4) (e.g., public order), it enables collective organization, as seen in trade union rights. - Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended even during emergency?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 20
(D) Article 21
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Articles 20 (protection against conviction) and 21 (right to life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended during a National Emergency, as per the 44th Amendment (1978). Article 20 safeguards against retrospective laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination, ensuring core protections. - Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) Attorney General
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 61, impeachment proceedings against the President for violation of the Constitution can be initiated by either House of Parliament with a two-thirds majority motion, followed by investigation by the other House, ensuring rigorous accountability. - Which state has the smallest legislative assembly in India?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Sikkim
(C) Goa
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Sikkim has the smallest Legislative Assembly with 32 members, as per Article 170, which allows smaller states to have assemblies below the minimum of 60. Mizoram (40), Goa (40), and Arunachal Pradesh (60) have larger assemblies. - Which part of the Constitution deals with Services under the Union and States?
(A) Part XIII
(B) Part XIV
(C) Part XV
(D) Part XVI
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part XIV (Articles 308–323) deals with Services under the Union and States, covering recruitment, conditions, and bodies like the UPSC (Article 315) and State Public Service Commissions, ensuring a structured framework for public service administration. - Which Fundamental Right was deleted from the Constitution?
(A) Right to Property
(B) Right to Education
(C) Right to Equality
(D) Right to Freedom
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Right to Property was deleted as a Fundamental Right under Article 31 by the 44th Amendment Act (1978) and made a legal right under Article 300A. This facilitated land reforms, while other rights like education (Article 21A) remain Fundamental Rights. - The term ‘money bill’ is defined in –
(A) Article 109
(B) Article 110
(C) Article 111
(D) Article 112
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 110 defines a Money Bill, covering matters like taxation, borrowing, and expenditure. Certified by the Lok Sabha Speaker, it restricts the Rajya Sabha to recommendations within 14 days, ensuring the lower house’s financial primacy. - Which Article gives the Governor the power to reserve bills for President’s consideration?
(A) Article 200
(B) Article 201
(C) Article 202
(D) Article 203
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 200 empowers the Governor to reserve certain state bills for the President’s consideration, especially those affecting High Court powers or Centre-state relations. Article 201 governs the President’s action on such reserved bills. - Which of the following is not a function of the President?
(A) Summon Parliament
(B) Promulgate Ordinances
(C) Pass laws
(D) Appoint Governors
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The President summons Parliament (Article 85), promulgates ordinances (Article 123), and appoints Governors (Article 155). Passing laws is Parliament’s function, with the President granting assent (Article 111), reflecting the separation of powers. - The power of judicial review is derived from which Article?
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 32
(C) Article 131
(D) Article 142
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 13 establishes judicial review by declaring laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void. It empowers the Supreme Court and High Courts to review legislation, reinforced by Articles 32 and 226, as seen in Minerva Mills (1980). - Which Article allows the Parliament to make laws for giving effect to international treaties?
(A) Article 251
(B) Article 252
(C) Article 253
(D) Article 254
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws to implement international treaties, agreements, or conventions, even on State List subjects. This ensures India’s compliance with global obligations, such as environmental or trade agreements, overriding federal divisions.