MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- Which Amendment Act introduced the provision for National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?
(A) 86th Amendment
(B) 89th Amendment
(C) 91st Amendment
(D) 93rd Amendment
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act (2003) amended Article 338 and introduced Article 338A, establishing the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) as a separate body from the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. This ensures focused monitoring of ST safeguards and welfare. - Which Article deals with the duties of the Prime Minister?
(A) Article 73
(B) Article 74
(C) Article 75
(D) Article 78
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 78 outlines the duties of the Prime Minister, including communicating to the President all Cabinet decisions, providing information on administration, and submitting proposals for consideration. It ensures the Prime Minister acts as the link between the President and the Council of Ministers. - Which constitutional provision deals with the impeachment of a High Court judge?
(A) Article 217
(B) Article 218
(C) Article 124(4)
(D) Judges can’t be impeached
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 124(4) governs the impeachment of High Court judges (via Article 218, which applies Article 124 to High Courts). A judge can be removed for proved misbehavior or incapacity by a parliamentary motion with a special majority, ensuring judicial accountability. - The 11th Schedule of the Constitution is related to –
(A) Municipalities
(B) Panchayats
(C) Union Territories
(D) Cooperative Societies
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 11th Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment Act (1992), lists 29 subjects (e.g., agriculture, rural development) under the purview of Panchayats, enabling decentralized governance. The 12th Schedule pertains to municipalities, distinguishing their roles. - Which committee suggested the establishment of Inter-State Council?
(A) Balwantrai Mehta
(B) Sarkaria Committee
(C) Punchhi Committee
(D) Venkatachaliah Commission
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Sarkaria Committee (1983–88) recommended establishing the Inter-State Council under Article 263 to enhance coordination on Centre-state and inter-state issues. Formed in 1990, it fosters cooperative federalism, addressing disputes like taxation or water sharing. - The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of –
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Cabinet
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 85, the President dissolves the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Cabinet), led by the Prime Minister. This collective advice, reflecting majority support, triggers early elections, as seen in 1999 or 2004 dissolutions. - Which of the following is not a type of Emergency mentioned in the Constitution?
(A) National Emergency
(B) State Emergency
(C) Financial Emergency
(D) Health Emergency
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Constitution provides for three emergencies: National Emergency (Article 352, war or rebellion), State Emergency (Article 356, failure of state machinery), and Financial Emergency (Article 360, financial instability). Health Emergency is not a constitutional provision. - Which Article empowers the Parliament to form new States?
(A) Article 2
(B) Article 3
(C) Article 4
(D) Article 5
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new states, alter boundaries, or change names by a simple majority, after a Presidential recommendation. Examples include the creation of Telangana (2014) and the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir (2019). - Which of the following can be dissolved?
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) State Legislative Council
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President under Article 85 before its five-year term, triggering elections. The Rajya Sabha is permanent, State Legislative Councils can be abolished by Parliament (Article 169), and the Supreme Court is a constitutional institution, not subject to dissolution. - The Indian Constitution is described as –
(A) Unitary
(B) Federal
(C) Quasi-federal
(D) Presidential
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution is quasi-federal, combining federal features (division of powers, bicameralism) with unitary aspects (strong Centre, emergency provisions). Described by scholars like K.C. Wheare, it balances state autonomy with Union dominance, unlike a purely federal or unitary system. - Which Article deals with the provisions related to Citizenship?
(A) Article 5 to 8
(B) Article 9 to 11
(C) Article 5 to 11
(D) Article 1 to 5
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Articles 5 to 11 in Part II deal with citizenship, covering eligibility at the Constitution’s commencement (Articles 5–8) and provisions for acquisition, termination, and regulation by Parliament (Articles 9–11). This establishes India’s single citizenship framework. - How is the Chief Election Commissioner removed from office?
(A) By the President
(B) Like a Supreme Court judge
(C) By Prime Minister
(D) By Parliament through ordinary resolution
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 324(5), the Chief Election Commissioner is removed like a Supreme Court judge, requiring a parliamentary impeachment motion for proved misbehavior or incapacity (Article 124(4)). This ensures the Commission’s independence from executive control. - Who has the final authority to decide the interpretation of the Constitution?
(A) Parliament
(B) Supreme Court
(C) President
(D) Attorney General
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Supreme Court holds the final authority to interpret the Constitution under Articles 13, 32, and 137, using judicial review. Landmark cases like Kesavananda Bharati (1973) affirm its role in upholding constitutional supremacy over Parliament or the President. - Who among the following can suspend Fundamental Rights?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The President can suspend certain Fundamental Rights (e.g., Article 19) during a National Emergency under Article 359, except for Articles 20 and 21, as per the 44th Amendment (1978). Neither the Supreme Court nor Parliament has this authority. - What is the minimum age for becoming a member of the Legislative Assembly?
(A) 21
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 35
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 173, the minimum age to become a member of a State Legislative Assembly is 25 years, ensuring candidates have sufficient maturity for legislative roles. This aligns with the Lok Sabha’s requirement, while the Rajya Sabha requires 30 years. - What is the maximum duration of the Legislative Assembly of a state?
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 6 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 172, the State Legislative Assembly has a maximum term of five years, unless dissolved earlier by the Governor. This mirrors the Lok Sabha’s term, ensuring periodic elections to maintain democratic accountability. - The term ‘secularism’ in the Constitution implies –
(A) Equal treatment of all religions
(B) Preference to minority religions
(C) Ban on religion
(D) Religious freedom only to majority
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Secularism, added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment (1976), implies equal treatment of all religions by the state, ensuring neutrality and freedom of religion under Articles 25–28. It promotes harmony without favoring or banning any religion. - Which of the following is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right?
(A) Right to Education
(B) Right to Information
(C) Right to Equality
(D) Right to Speech
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Right to Information, enacted under the RTI Act, 2005, is a legal right, not a Fundamental Right. Right to Education (Article 21A), Right to Equality (Articles 14–18), and Right to Speech (Article 19(1)(a)) are Fundamental Rights under Part III. - Which part of the Constitution deals with the Union Executive?
(A) Part IV
(B) Part V
(C) Part VI
(D) Part VII
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part V (Articles 52–78) deals with the Union Executive, comprising the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, and Council of Ministers. It outlines their powers, functions, and responsibilities, forming the core of India’s parliamentary executive framework. - Which Article deals with the composition of the Council of Ministers?
(A) Article 73
(B) Article 74
(C) Article 75
(D) Article 76
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 75 governs the composition of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, appointed by the President. It mandates collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha and limits the Council’s size (91st Amendment, 2003), ensuring efficient governance. - The term ‘Republic’ in the Preamble indicates –
(A) Hereditary head of state
(B) Elected head of state
(C) Prime Ministerial form of govt
(D) Bicameral legislature
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The term ‘Republic’ in the Preamble indicates an elected head of state (the President), contrasting with a hereditary monarchy. It underscores India’s democratic system, where sovereignty rests with the people, not a Prime Ministerial or bicameral feature. - Which of the following is true about Fundamental Duties?
(A) Justiciable
(B) Non-justiciable
(C) Enforced through PIL
(D) Listed in Part III
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Fundamental Duties under Article 51A (Part IVA) are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts. Added by the 42nd Amendment (1976), they guide citizens’ responsibilities (e.g., respecting the Constitution) but lack legal enforceability, unlike Fundamental Rights in Part III. - Which amendment added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Constitution?
(A) 40th
(B) 42nd
(C) 44th
(D) 52nd
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) introduced Part IVA (Article 51A), adding 10 Fundamental Duties (later 11 with the 86th Amendment, 2002). These duties, like promoting harmony, balance Fundamental Rights with civic responsibilities. - Which schedule lists the subjects in Union, State, and Concurrent Lists?
(A) 5th
(B) 6th
(C) 7th
(D) 8th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule divides legislative powers into the Union List (97 subjects, e.g., defense), State List (66 subjects, e.g., agriculture), and Concurrent List (52 subjects, e.g., education). It defines India’s federal structure under Article 246. - The number of judges in the Supreme Court is decided by –
(A) President
(B) Chief Justice
(C) Parliament
(D) Cabinet
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 124, Parliament determines the number of Supreme Court judges by law. The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, amended periodically, set the strength at 34 (including the Chief Justice) in 2019, balancing judicial workload and efficiency. - What is the quorum to hold a meeting of the Lok Sabha?
(A) 10%
(B) 1/4th
(C) 1/5th
(D) 1/10th
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 100, the quorum for a Lok Sabha meeting is one-tenth (1/10th) of its total strength (currently 55 out of 543 members). This ensures sufficient representation for valid proceedings, applicable to both Houses of Parliament. - Which Article allows Parliament to provide for a separate Scheduled Tribes Commission?
(A) Article 338
(B) Article 338A
(C) Article 339
(D) Article 340
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 338A, added by the 89th Amendment (2003), provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST), enabling Parliament to establish a separate body to monitor ST safeguards, distinct from the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (Article 338). - The Right to Freedom of Religion is guaranteed under –
(A) Articles 19–22
(B) Articles 23–24
(C) Articles 25–28
(D) Articles 29–30
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Articles 25–28 guarantee the Right to Freedom of Religion, covering freedom to practice and propagate religion (Article 25), manage religious affairs (Article 26), exemption from religious taxes (Article 27), and freedom from religious instruction in state-aided institutions (Article 28). - The Constitution of India was enacted by –
(A) Constituent Assembly
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Cabinet Mission
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Constitution of India was enacted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949, and came into force on January 26, 1950. Chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad and drafted under Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, it was a sovereign act of India’s people, independent of the Cabinet Mission. - The term ‘Union of States’ was used to indicate –
(A) Strong Centre
(B) Weak Centre
(C) Equal Powers to States
(D) Autonomy to States
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The term ‘Union of States’ in Article 1 emphasizes a strong Centre, reflecting India’s quasi-federal structure with greater Union authority over states. Dr. Ambedkar noted this unitary bias, ensuring national unity over state autonomy, unlike a federation with equal powers. - Which Amendment abolished the Privy Purses?
(A) 24th
(B) 26th
(C) 27th
(D) 29th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 26th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) abolished Privy Purses and privileges of former princely state rulers, amending Articles 291 and 362. This fulfilled the constitutional promise of equality by ending special financial grants to princely families. - Which Article guarantees non-discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 15 prohibits discrimination by the state on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, ensuring equal access to public places and opportunities. It complements Article 14 (equality before law) and Article 16 (equality in public employment). - The age of retirement of a Supreme Court judge is –
(A) 60
(B) 62
(C) 65
(D) 68
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 124, a Supreme Court judge retires at the age of 65 years, ensuring experienced judicial service while allowing turnover. This contrasts with High Court judges (62 years, Article 217) and supports judicial independence. - The Speaker of Lok Sabha submits resignation to –
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Deputy Speaker
(D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 94, the Speaker of Lok Sabha submits their resignation to the Deputy Speaker, ensuring procedural continuity within the House. Similarly, the Deputy Speaker resigns to the Speaker, maintaining parliamentary autonomy in leadership transitions. - Which is not a function of the Cabinet?
(A) Policy formulation
(B) Legislative proposal
(C) Judicial review
(D) Coordination among departments
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Cabinet, led by the Prime Minister, formulates policies, proposes legislation, and ensures inter-departmental coordination under Article 75. Judicial review is a function of the Supreme Court and High Courts (Articles 13, 32, 226), not the executive. - Which amendment reserved seats for SCs and STs in Parliament?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 46th
(D) 104th
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2019) extended reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies until 2030, amending Articles 330 and 332. It also abolished Anglo-Indian nominations. - Which state has the highest number of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) West Bengal
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of Rajya Sabha seats (31), based on its population under the Fourth Schedule. Maharashtra (19), Bihar (16), and West Bengal (16) follow, reflecting proportional representation in the Council of States. - Which article deals with the Advocate General of the State?
(A) Article 155
(B) Article 165
(C) Article 170
(D) Article 180
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 165 provides for the Advocate General of a state, appointed by the Governor to serve as the state’s chief legal advisor. They hold office at the Governor’s pleasure, mirroring the Attorney General’s role at the Union level. - Which amendment gave constitutional status to local bodies?
(A) 72nd
(B) 73rd
(C) 74th
(D) Both B & C
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The 73rd Amendment Act (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayats (Part IX, 11th Schedule), and the 74th Amendment Act (1992) did the same for Municipalities (Part IXA, 12th Schedule). Both strengthened local self-governance with defined structures and powers. - Which of the following are constitutional bodies?
(A) UPSC
(B) Election Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The UPSC (Article 315), Election Commission (Article 324), and Finance Commission (Article 280) are all constitutional bodies established by the Constitution. They ensure independent functioning in public service recruitment, elections, and fiscal federalism, respectively. - Which amendment act delinked religion from politics and elections?
(A) 41st
(B) 42nd
(C) 44th
(D) 51st
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) strengthened secularism by adding ‘secular’ to the Preamble and reinforcing provisions that prevent the misuse of religion in elections, aligning with Article 25 and judicial interpretations like S.R. Bommai (1994). - Which Article deals with the appointment of the Governor?
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 154
(C) Article 155
(D) Article 156
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 155 provides that the Governor of a state is appointed by the President by warrant under their hand and seal. The Governor serves as the constitutional head of the state, acting on the advice of the state’s Council of Ministers. - Which body publishes the All India Judicial Services exam guidelines?
(A) UPSC
(B) Bar Council
(C) Law Commission
(D) Ministry of Law and Justice
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The UPSC is proposed to conduct the All India Judicial Services (AIJS) exam, as recommended by the Supreme Court and government discussions. While not fully implemented as of 2025, the UPSC’s role aligns with its mandate under Article 320 for civil service examinations. - The 12th Schedule of the Constitution relates to –
(A) Panchayats
(B) Municipalities
(C) Cooperative societies
(D) Election Commission
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 12th Schedule, added by the 74th Amendment Act (1992), lists 18 subjects (e.g., urban planning, public health) under the purview of Municipalities, enabling urban local bodies to function as effective self-governing institutions under Part IXA. - Which article provides for a Council of Ministers to aid the President?
(A) Article 73
(B) Article 74
(C) Article 75
(D) Article 76
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 74 mandates a Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, to aid and advise the President, who acts in accordance with this advice (post-44th Amendment). It establishes the parliamentary executive’s role in Union governance. - How many types of emergencies are envisaged in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Constitution envisages three types of emergencies: National Emergency (Article 352, war or rebellion), State Emergency or President’s Rule (Article 356, failure of state machinery), and Financial Emergency (Article 360, financial instability), addressing distinct crises. - Which authority conducts elections to the Panchayats?
(A) State Election Commission
(B) Election Commission of India
(C) Governor
(D) Parliament
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The State Election Commission, established under Article 243K (via the 73rd Amendment), conducts elections to Panchayats, ensuring local democratic processes. The Election Commission of India oversees national and state elections, not local bodies. - The phrase “Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity” in the Preamble is borrowed from –
(A) US Constitution
(B) French Constitution
(C) Irish Constitution
(D) Canadian Constitution
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The phrase “Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity” in the Preamble is inspired by the French Constitution, reflecting the ideals of the French Revolution. These principles shape India’s constitutional vision of a just and inclusive democratic society. - What is the maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly of a state?
(A) 400
(B) 500
(C) 525
(D) 550
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 170, the maximum strength of a State Legislative Assembly is 500 members, with a minimum of 60 (except for smaller states like Sikkim). This ensures proportional representation while maintaining manageable legislative bodies. - The 10th Schedule of the Constitution deals with –
(A) Panchayati Raj
(B) Anti-defection Law
(C) Language policy
(D) President’s rule
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act (1985), contains the Anti-defection Law, disqualifying MPs/MLAs for voluntarily giving up party membership or voting against party directives. It promotes political stability, strengthened by the 91st Amendment (2003).