MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- Which Article provides for the establishment of the Election Commission?
(A) Article 324
(B) Article 325
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 327
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 324 establishes the Election Commission of India, vesting it with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. This constitutional body ensures free and fair elections, a cornerstone of India’s democracy. - The power to create or abolish a Legislative Council in a state lies with –
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) State Legislature
(D) Parliament
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 169, Parliament has the power to create or abolish a State Legislative Council by passing a law, provided the state legislature passes a resolution with a special majority. This ensures central oversight over bicameralism in states, as seen in states like Karnataka or Uttar Pradesh. - How many languages are currently listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) 21
(B) 22
(C) 23
(D) 24
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists 22 official languages as of 2025, including Hindi, Tamil, Bodo, and Maithili, added through amendments like the 21st (1967) and 92nd (2003). It promotes linguistic diversity while supporting official communication under Article 343. - Which body is referred to as the ‘Guardian of the Constitution’?
(A) Parliament
(B) Supreme Court
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Supreme Court is known as the ‘Guardian of the Constitution’ due to its power of judicial review under Articles 13, 32, and 136. Landmark cases like Kesavananda Bharati (1973) affirm its role in protecting the Constitution’s basic structure against legislative or executive overreach. - Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 132
(C) Article 136
(D) Article 32
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto) for enforcing Fundamental Rights, making it the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution, as described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, ensuring direct access to constitutional remedies. - The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in –
(A) 2013
(B) 2014
(C) 2015
(D) 2016
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Planning Commission, established in 1950, was replaced by NITI Aayog on January 1, 2015, through a Union Cabinet resolution. NITI Aayog fosters cooperative federalism, shifting from centralized planning to a think-tank model for policy formulation and state collaboration. - Who is the highest law officer of India?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Attorney General of India
(C) Solicitor General
(D) Law Minister
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Attorney General of India, appointed under Article 76, is the highest law officer, serving as the Union’s chief legal advisor and representing it in courts. The Chief Justice heads the judiciary, while the Solicitor General and Law Minister have distinct roles. - The Election Commission is a –
(A) Statutory body
(B) Constitutional body
(C) Quasi-judicial body
(D) Non-constitutional body
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Election Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 324, tasked with conducting free and fair elections. While it exercises quasi-judicial powers (e.g., resolving disputes), its constitutional status ensures independence and authority in electoral matters. - Which part of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part IVA
(D) Part V
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Part IVA (Article 51A), added by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976), lists 11 Fundamental Duties for citizens, such as respecting the Constitution and promoting harmony. These non-justiciable duties balance Fundamental Rights, fostering civic responsibility. - The 44th Amendment restored which of the following rights taken away during the Emergency?
(A) Right to Property
(B) Right to Life and Liberty
(C) Right to Strike
(D) Right to form Associations
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act (1978) ensured that Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) and Article 20 cannot be suspended during a National Emergency, reversing their suspension during the 1975 Emergency. The Right to Property was removed as a Fundamental Right by this amendment. - Which state has the largest number of Lok Sabha seats?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh has the largest number of Lok Sabha seats (80 out of 543), based on its population as per the Delimitation Commission (2002). Maharashtra (48), Bihar (40), and West Bengal (42) follow, reflecting proportional representation under Article 81. - Which Article deals with the composition of the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Article 79
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 81
(D) Article 82
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 80 specifies the composition of the Rajya Sabha, with a maximum of 250 members (238 elected from states and Union territories, 12 nominated by the President). It ensures federal representation, complementing the Lok Sabha’s structure under Article 81. - The President of India is elected by –
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) State Legislatures
(D) Electoral College
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The President is elected by an Electoral College under Article 54, comprising elected members of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and state legislative assemblies. This inclusive mechanism ensures federal participation in electing the constitutional head. - The total number of Union Territories in India (as of 2024) is –
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Answer: (C)
Explanation: As of 2024, India has 8 Union Territories: Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Delhi, Lakshadweep, Puducherry, Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh, following the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir in 2019. - The basic structure doctrine was laid down in –
(A) Golaknath case
(B) Shankari Prasad case
(C) Kesavananda Bharati case
(D) Minerva Mills case
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The basic structure doctrine was established in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), where the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution’s basic structure (e.g., federalism, secularism). This landmark judgment limits amendment powers under Article 368. - Who among the following can attend both Houses of Parliament but cannot vote?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Attorney General
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Attorney General under Article 76 has the right to attend and speak in both Houses of Parliament or their committees but cannot vote, as they are not an elected member. The President and Vice-President have distinct roles, and the CAG lacks this privilege. - The final authority to interpret the Constitution rests with –
(A) Parliament
(B) Supreme Court
(C) President
(D) Law Commission
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Supreme Court is the final authority to interpret the Constitution under Articles 13, 32, and 137, using its judicial review powers. Cases like Minerva Mills (1980) affirm its role in ensuring constitutional supremacy over Parliament or the President. - Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(A) Right to Property
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom
(D) Right against Exploitation
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Right to Property was removed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Amendment Act (1978) and is now a legal right under Article 300A. Right to Equality (Articles 14–18), Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22), and Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24) remain Fundamental Rights. - The procedure for impeachment of the President is laid down in –
(A) Article 52
(B) Article 61
(C) Article 74
(D) Article 80
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 61 outlines the impeachment procedure for the President for violation of the Constitution. Initiated by either House of Parliament with a two-thirds majority, it requires investigation by the other House, ensuring a rigorous accountability process. - The first General Elections in India were held in –
(A) 1947
(B) 1950
(C) 1951–52
(D) 1955
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The first General Elections were held from October 1951 to February 1952, electing the first Lok Sabha and state assemblies under the new Constitution. Conducted by the Election Commission under Sukumar Sen, they marked India’s democratic milestone with universal adult suffrage. - Which of the following statements is true about the Rajya Sabha?
(A) It is dissolved every five years
(B) It is a permanent house
(C) It has more powers than Lok Sabha
(D) It passes the budget first
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house under Article 83, not subject to dissolution, with one-third of members retiring every two years. Unlike the Lok Sabha, it has limited powers over money bills and does not initiate the budget, which starts in the Lok Sabha. - Which Article deals with the powers and functions of the President?
(A) Article 52
(B) Article 53
(C) Article 74
(D) Article 76
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in the President, including powers as the head of state and supreme commander of the armed forces. Article 74 mandates the President to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, shaping their functional role. - The leader of the majority party in Lok Sabha is appointed as –
(A) Speaker
(B) President
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 75, the President appoints the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister, who heads the Council of Ministers. This reflects the parliamentary system’s reliance on majority support for executive leadership. - Who is known as the father of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is known as the father of the Indian Constitution for his pivotal role as Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly. His expertise shaped the Constitution’s framework, balancing federalism, rights, and social justice. - Which part of the Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(A) Part II
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part IVA
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Part IV (Articles 36–51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy, guiding the state toward social, economic, and political justice. Inspired by the Irish Constitution, these non-justiciable principles promote a welfare state, e.g., through education (Article 45) and a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44). - Which Article guarantees equal protection of the laws?
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 15
(D) Article 16
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws for all persons within India, ensuring non-discrimination and fairness. It forms the cornerstone of the Right to Equality, applied in landmark cases like Maneka Gandhi (1978). - Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Law Minister
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 124, the President appoints Supreme Court judges, including the Chief Justice, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and other judges. The collegium system guides these appointments, ensuring judicial independence and merit-based selection. - Which schedule of the Constitution is related to the allocation of Rajya Sabha seats to states?
(A) Second Schedule
(B) Fourth Schedule
(C) Sixth Schedule
(D) Seventh Schedule
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Fourth Schedule details the allocation of Rajya Sabha seats to states and Union territories under Article 80, based on population proportions. It ensures federal representation, with periodic adjustments following state reorganizations or delimitation. - Which body recommends financial distribution between the Union and the States?
(A) NITI Aayog
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Economic Advisory Council
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Finance Commission, constituted every five years under Article 280, recommends the distribution of tax revenues and grants-in-aid between the Union and states. It ensures fiscal federalism, unlike NITI Aayog, which focuses on policy planning. - Who among the following is the head of a Union Territory?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) President
(C) Lieutenant Governor
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Lieutenant Governor or Administrator, appointed by the President under Article 239, serves as the head of a Union Territory, overseeing its administration. In Union territories like Delhi and Puducherry, a Chief Minister exists but operates under the Lieutenant Governor’s authority. - The Constitution of India came into force on –
(A) 15 August 1947
(B) 26 January 1950
(C) 26 November 1949
(D) 30 January 1950
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950, marking Republic Day. Adopted on November 26, 1949, by the Constituent Assembly, it established India as a sovereign, democratic republic, replacing the Government of India Act, 1935. - Which Amendment introduced anti-defection provisions in the Constitution?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 52nd
(D) 61st
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1985) introduced the Tenth Schedule, containing anti-defection provisions to disqualify MPs/MLAs for voluntarily giving up party membership or voting against party directives, promoting political stability and loyalty. - The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by –
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Governor
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 217, the President appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of a High Court, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the state’s Governor. The collegium system ensures judicial independence in these appointments. - Which Article deals with the procedure for resolving inter-state water disputes?
(A) Article 262
(B) Article 263
(C) Article 280
(D) Article 315
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 262 empowers Parliament to legislate on inter-state water disputes and bars the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction over such disputes. The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, establishes tribunals to resolve conflicts like the Cauvery dispute, ensuring federal coordination. - Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) President
(C) Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 64, the Vice-President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, presiding over its proceedings and ensuring impartial conduct. This role distinguishes the Vice-President from the Lok Sabha Speaker’s position in the lower house. - What is the minimum age required to become the Vice-President of India?
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 40 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 66, the minimum age to become the Vice-President is 35 years, ensuring candidates have the maturity needed for this constitutional role, which includes chairing the Rajya Sabha and acting as President when required. - The idea of a Concurrent List was borrowed from the Constitution of –
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) Australia
(D) Ireland
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule, allowing both Union and states to legislate on subjects like education, was borrowed from the Australian Constitution. This federal feature ensures shared governance, with Union law prevailing in conflicts (Article 254). - Which article of the Constitution defines Money Bills?
(A) Article 109
(B) Article 110
(C) Article 112
(D) Article 115
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 110 defines a Money Bill, covering matters like taxation, borrowing, and expenditure. Certified by the Lok Sabha Speaker, it limits the Rajya Sabha’s role to recommendations, ensuring the lower house’s primacy in financial legislation. - Which committee recommended the Panchayati Raj system in India?
(A) Sarkaria Committee
(B) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(C) Mandal Committee
(D) Gadgil Committee
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the establishment of the Panchayati Raj system to promote decentralized governance. Its three-tier model (village, block, district) laid the foundation for the 73rd Amendment Act (1992), formalizing local self-governance. - Which Article of the Constitution guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty?
(A) Article 20
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 22
(D) Article 23
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 21 guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty, protecting individuals from arbitrary state action. Expanded through cases like Maneka Gandhi (1978), it encompasses rights like privacy, health, and a dignified life, forming a core Fundamental Right. - The tenure of the Vice-President of India is –
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) Co-terminus with President
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 67, the Vice-President serves a five-year term, elected by an electoral college of both Houses of Parliament. Unlike the President, their tenure is not co-terminus, ensuring continuity in their role as Rajya Sabha Chairman. - Which Article gives Parliament the power to reorganize states?
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 3
(D) Article 4
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 3 empowers Parliament to reorganize states by forming new states, altering boundaries, or changing names, requiring a simple majority and Presidential recommendation. Examples include the creation of Telangana (2014) and the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir (2019). - The principle of collective responsibility is found in –
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 76
(D) Article 78
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 75(3) establishes the principle of collective responsibility, making the Council of Ministers collectively accountable to the Lok Sabha. This parliamentary norm ensures unified executive action, with the Prime Minister leading Cabinet decisions. - Which state was first to establish a High Court?
(A) Bombay
(B) Madras
(C) Calcutta
(D) Allahabad
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Calcutta High Court, established in 1862 under the High Courts Act, 1861, was the first High Court in India during British rule. It preceded the Bombay and Madras High Courts (also 1862) and Allahabad (1866), setting a precedent for judicial administration. - The President of India is elected for a term of –
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) 7 years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 56, the President is elected for a five-year term, renewable through re-election. This fixed tenure ensures stability in the constitutional headship, with provisions for early termination via resignation or impeachment. - Which Fundamental Right protects against exploitation of children below 14 years?
(A) Article 23
(B) Article 24
(C) Article 25
(D) Article 26
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, or hazardous occupations, protecting them from exploitation. Part of the Right against Exploitation, it is reinforced by laws like the Child Labour Act, 1986. - Which Article provides for the appointment of a Special Officer for SCs and STs?
(A) Article 338
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 340
(D) Article 341
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 338 provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (originally a Special Officer, later split into NCSC and NCST by the 89th Amendment, 2003). It monitors safeguards for SCs, ensuring their welfare and protection against discrimination. - Which Schedule deals with the administration and control of tribal areas in the Northeast?
(A) Fifth
(B) Sixth
(C) Seventh
(D) Ninth
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule provides for the administration of tribal areas in states like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, establishing Autonomous District Councils to protect tribal autonomy and culture, distinct from the Fifth Schedule for other scheduled areas. - How many members are nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha (before 104th Amendment)?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Before the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2019), Article 331 allowed the President to nominate two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha if the community was underrepresented. This provision was abolished, reducing the Lok Sabha’s strength to 543 elected members. - Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Speaker
(D) Council of Ministers
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 85, the President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Prime Minister or Council of Ministers, typically to call for early elections. The Speaker has no such authority, and dissolution reflects the parliamentary system’s executive discretion.