MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- Which committee recommended Constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions?
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(C) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986) recommended granting constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions to strengthen local self-governance. This paved the way for the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992), which introduced Part IX and the 11th Schedule, formalizing the three-tier Panchayat system. - Which Article of the Constitution deals with the composition of the Lok Sabha?
(A) Article 80
(B) Article 81
(C) Article 82
(D) Article 83
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 81 outlines the composition of the Lok Sabha, specifying a maximum of 552 members (530 from states, 20 from Union territories, and up to 2 nominated Anglo-Indian members, abolished by the 104th Amendment, 2019). It ensures proportional representation based on population. - Who presides over a joint sitting of Parliament?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 118, the Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses, convened by the President to resolve deadlocks on non-money bills. The Speaker’s role ensures impartial conduct, as seen in instances like the Dowry Prohibition Bill (1961). - Which writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court to quash its order?
(A) Prohibition
(B) Certiorari
(C) Mandamus
(D) Habeas Corpus
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Certiorari is a writ issued by a higher court (Supreme Court or High Court) under Articles 32 or 226 to quash an order of a lower court or tribunal if it acts beyond its jurisdiction or violates natural justice. It ensures judicial oversight and corrects legal errors. - The provision of reservation in promotion for SCs and STs was added by which Amendment?
(A) 75th
(B) 76th
(C) 77th
(D) 78th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 77th Constitutional Amendment Act (1995) added Article 16(4A), enabling reservation in promotions for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in government jobs. This countered the Supreme Court’s Indra Sawhney (1992) ruling, ensuring continued affirmative action. - Which one of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended even during Emergency?
(A) Right to freedom of speech
(B) Right to assemble
(C) Protection in respect of conviction
(D) Right to form associations
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 20 (protection against conviction, including safeguards against retrospective laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination) cannot be suspended during a National Emergency, as per the 44th Amendment Act (1978). Article 21 (right to life) is also protected, unlike Articles 19(1)(a), (b), or (d). - Who was the first Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
(A) Justice Ranganath Misra
(B) Justice A.S. Anand
(C) Justice Venkatachaliah
(D) Justice J.S. Verma
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Justice Ranganath Misra was the first Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), appointed in 1993 when the NHRC was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act. His leadership set the foundation for human rights advocacy in India. - Which body can recommend the creation of new All India Services?
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) UPSC
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 312, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution with a two-thirds majority to recommend the creation of new All India Services if it deems it necessary for national interest. Parliament then legislates to establish such services, like the IAS or IPS. - How long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?
(A) 14 days
(B) 1 month
(C) 3 months
(D) Cannot delay
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 109, the Rajya Sabha can delay a Money Bill for a maximum of 14 days after receiving it from the Lok Sabha. It can suggest amendments, but the Lok Sabha may reject them, ensuring swift passage of financial legislation. - Which Article relates to the welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 46
(D) Article 48
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 46, a Directive Principle, directs the state to promote the educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) and protect them from social injustice, ensuring affirmative action for their welfare and integration. - The Constitution provides for how many types of Writs?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Constitution provides for five types of writs under Articles 32 and 226: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto. These writs enable the Supreme Court and High Courts to protect Fundamental Rights and ensure legal compliance. - Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with elections?
(A) Part XV
(B) Part XVI
(C) Part XVII
(D) Part XVIII
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Part XV (Articles 324–329) deals with elections, establishing the Election Commission (Article 324) and outlining provisions for electoral rolls, adult suffrage (Article 326), and barring judicial interference in electoral matters (Article 329), ensuring a robust democratic process. - Which of the following is NOT a duty of the Election Commission?
(A) Preparing electoral rolls
(B) Conducting elections
(C) Appointing judges
(D) Granting recognition to political parties
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Election Commission under Article 324 prepares electoral rolls, conducts elections, and grants recognition to political parties (via the Election Symbols Order, 1968). Appointing judges is the responsibility of the President under Article 124 (Supreme Court) and Article 217 (High Courts). - The institution of Lokayukta was first created in –
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Gujarat
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Karnataka
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Lokayukta, an anti-corruption ombudsman, was first established in Karnataka in 1971 under the Karnataka Lokayukta Act. Inspired by the Scandinavian ombudsman model, it investigates corruption complaints against public officials, with other states later adopting similar institutions. - Which Amendment Act included Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali in the 8th Schedule?
(A) 91st
(B) 92nd
(C) 93rd
(D) 94th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act (2003) added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali to the Eighth Schedule, increasing the total to 22 languages. This inclusion promotes linguistic diversity and cultural preservation in official communication. - The maximum duration of President’s Rule in a state can be –
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 5 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 356, President’s Rule in a state can be extended up to three years with Parliamentary approval every six months, as per the 44th Amendment Act (1978). This limit prevents prolonged Central control, ensuring restoration of state governance. - Which committee suggested reforms in the criminal justice system?
(A) Vohra Committee
(B) Malimath Committee
(C) Punchhi Committee
(D) NITI Aayog Panel
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Malimath Committee (2000–2003) recommended reforms to the criminal justice system, focusing on investigation, prosecution, and judicial efficiency to reduce delays and improve justice delivery. Other committees addressed unrelated issues (e.g., Vohra on criminal-politician nexus, Punchhi on Centre-state relations). - Which Article of the Constitution is related to the Uniform Civil Code?
(A) Article 44
(B) Article 45
(C) Article 46
(D) Article 47
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 44, a Directive Principle, directs the state to secure a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) across India to promote equality in personal laws (e.g., marriage, inheritance). Non-justiciable, it remains a goal for harmonizing diverse legal systems, sparking ongoing debates. - Which Amendment Act created the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council?
(A) 100th
(B) 101st
(C) 102nd
(D) 103rd
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (2016) introduced Article 279A, establishing the GST Council to oversee the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax, ensuring coordination between the Centre and states on tax policies and rates. - The National Emergency must be approved by Parliament within –
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 1 year
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 352, a National Emergency proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 60 days (reduced to one month by the 44th Amendment, 1978). This ensures legislative oversight over emergency declarations, balancing executive power. - The Supreme Court of India came into being on –
(A) 15 August 1947
(B) 26 November 1949
(C) 26 January 1950
(D) 28 January 1950
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Supreme Court was established on January 28, 1950, two days after the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950. It replaced the Federal Court, assuming its role as the apex judiciary under Article 124, with its first sitting on this date. - The Public Accounts Committee consists of –
(A) Only Lok Sabha members
(B) Only Rajya Sabha members
(C) Members of both Houses
(D) Ministers and MPs
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) comprises 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha), elected by proportional representation. It examines government expenditure and CAG reports, ensuring financial accountability, with no ministers included. - Which part of the Constitution mentions Official Languages?
(A) Part XVII
(B) Part XVIII
(C) Part XIX
(D) Part XX
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Part XVII (Articles 343–351) deals with official languages, designating Hindi and English as Union languages (Article 343), listing 22 languages in the Eighth Schedule, and promoting Hindi’s development (Article 351), ensuring linguistic coordination in governance. - The power of judicial review in India is derived from –
(A) British Constitution
(B) American Constitution
(C) Canadian Constitution
(D) French Constitution
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The power of judicial review, enabling courts to strike down unconstitutional laws, is derived from the American Constitution. Enshrined in Articles 13, 32, and 226, it allows the Supreme Court and High Courts to protect the Constitution’s supremacy, as seen in Kesavananda Bharati (1973). - What is the term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner?
(A) 5 years or till age 65
(B) 6 years or till age 65
(C) 4 years or till age 65
(D) No fixed term
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under the Election Commission (Conditions of Service) Act, the Chief Election Commissioner serves for 6 years or until age 65, whichever is earlier. This fixed tenure ensures independence from executive influence, safeguarding the Commission’s electoral oversight. - Which article deals with protection against double jeopardy?
(A) Article 20
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 22
(D) Article 23
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 20(2) provides protection against double jeopardy, ensuring no person is prosecuted and punished for the same offense twice. Part of Article 20, it safeguards against retrospective laws and self-incrimination, remaining protected even during emergencies. - Which part of the Constitution is inspired by the Directive Principles of Irish Constitution?
(A) Part I
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part IVA
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Part IV (Articles 36–51), containing the Directive Principles of State Policy, is inspired by the Irish Constitution. These non-justiciable principles guide the state toward social, economic, and political justice, shaping India’s welfare state framework. - Which Article provides special status to Delhi (National Capital Territory)?
(A) Article 239
(B) Article 239AA
(C) Article 239A
(D) Article 240
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 239AA, added by the 69th Amendment Act (1991), grants special status to Delhi as the National Capital Territory, establishing a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers while retaining Union oversight, balancing local governance with national interests. - Which Article is related to the composition of the Council of States?
(A) Article 79
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 81
(D) Article 82
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 80 outlines the composition of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), with a maximum of 250 members (238 elected from states/Union territories, 12 nominated by the President). It ensures federal representation, complementing the Lok Sabha’s structure under Article 81. - How many times has the Financial Emergency been declared in India?
(A) Never
(B) Once
(C) Twice
(D) Thrice
Answer: (A)
Explanation: A Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been declared in India as of June 2025. It allows the President to address severe financial crises, but India’s economic stability and fiscal mechanisms have not necessitated its use. - The idea of a ‘Welfare State’ is enshrined in –
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Preamble
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Fundamental Duties
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36–51) enshrine the concept of a welfare state, directing the state to promote social justice, economic equity, and public welfare through policies like education (Article 45) and equal pay (Article 39(d)). - The Sarkaria Commission was set up to examine –
(A) Electoral reforms
(B) Panchayati Raj
(C) Centre-State relations
(D) Planning process
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission (1983–88) was established to examine Centre-State relations, recommending measures to strengthen cooperative federalism, such as guidelines for President’s Rule and inter-state councils. Its findings remain influential in federal governance debates. - Which House cannot be dissolved?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) State Legislative Assembly
(D) State Legislative Council
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha, under Article 83, is a permanent house that cannot be dissolved, with one-third of its members retiring every two years. In contrast, the Lok Sabha and state assemblies can be dissolved early, ensuring continuity in the upper house. - What is the term of office of the Advocate General of a State?
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) No fixed term
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 165, the Advocate General of a state serves at the pleasure of the Governor, with no fixed term. Appointed to provide legal advice to the state government, their tenure depends on the Governor’s discretion or resignation. - Who acts as the link between the President and the Cabinet?
(A) Cabinet Secretary
(B) Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Home Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Prime Minister, under Article 74, acts as the link between the President and the Council of Ministers, leading the Cabinet and advising the President on executive decisions. This ensures coordination in the parliamentary system’s executive functioning. - Which language is not in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) Tulu
(B) Bodo
(C) Dogri
(D) Maithili
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists 22 official languages, including Bodo, Dogri, and Maithili (added by the 92nd Amendment, 2003). Tulu, despite demands for inclusion, is not listed, reflecting the selective recognition of linguistically significant languages. - Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(A) Sukumar Sen
(B) T.N. Seshan
(C) K.V.K. Sundaram
(D) G.V. Mavalankar
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India (1950–1958), overseeing the first general elections (1951–52). His leadership established the Election Commission’s credibility, ensuring India’s democratic process with universal adult suffrage. - Which amendment made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right?
(A) 84th
(B) 85th
(C) 86th
(D) 87th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002) added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 a Fundamental Right. It also amended Article 45 for early childhood care and added a parental duty under Article 51A(k). - Which writ is known as ‘We command’?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo Warranto
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Mandamus, meaning ‘we command’ in Latin, is a writ issued under Articles 32 or 226 to direct a public authority to perform its legal duty. It ensures administrative accountability, compelling action when officials fail to act lawfully. - The power of the High Courts to issue writs is under –
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 226
(C) Article 227
(D) Article 228
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto) for enforcing Fundamental Rights and other legal rights, offering broader jurisdiction than the Supreme Court’s Article 32 for accessible justice. - The Union Budget is presented by –
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Finance Minister
(D) RBI Governor
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Finance Minister presents the Union Budget annually in the Lok Sabha, as per Article 112, detailing the government’s revenue and expenditure plans. The President’s role is limited to authorizing its presentation, while the RBI Governor advises on monetary policy. - The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of –
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Parliament
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 76, the Attorney General is appointed by the President and holds office during their pleasure, with no fixed term. As the Union’s chief legal advisor, they represent the government in courts and provide constitutional advice. - Which is the only Fundamental Right that cannot be suspended during an emergency?
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 20
(D) Article 22
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 20 (protection against conviction) and Article 21 (right to life) cannot be suspended during a National Emergency, as per the 44th Amendment Act (1978). Article 20 safeguards against retrospective laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination, ensuring core protections. - Which commission recommended restructuring of Centre-State relations in 2010?
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Punchhi Commission
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) Law Commission
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Punchhi Commission (2007–2010) recommended reforms to Centre-State relations, building on the Sarkaria Commission’s work. It addressed issues like emergency provisions, inter-state councils, and fiscal federalism, aiming to strengthen cooperative federalism in India. - Which Indian body resolves disputes between States and the Centre?
(A) Parliament
(B) Supreme Court
(C) President
(D) NITI Aayog
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Supreme Court, under Article 131, has original jurisdiction to resolve disputes between the Centre and states or between states (e.g., water disputes). This judicial role ensures constitutional compliance and federal balance, independent of Parliament or the President. - Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble?
(A) Justice
(B) Dignity
(C) Equality
(D) Democracy
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Preamble mentions Justice, Equality, Liberty, and Fraternity, alongside declaring India a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. Dignity is not explicitly stated but is implied in Fundamental Rights (e.g., Article 21) and Directive Principles. - Which article provides the composition of the Union Council of Ministers?
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 76
(D) Article 77
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 75 provides for the Union Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, appointed by the President. It outlines their collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha and limits the Council’s size (91st Amendment, 2003), ensuring effective executive governance. - The term ‘State’ includes –
(A) Government
(B) Parliament
(C) Local bodies
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 12, the term ‘State’ includes the Government, Parliament, state legislatures, and local or other authorities (e.g., municipalities) under Union control. This broad definition ensures Fundamental Rights apply to all public entities for accountability. - Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister?
(A) Attorney General
(B) Speaker
(C) Leader of Opposition
(D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha enjoys the rank and status of a Cabinet Minister, as per the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977. This ensures their prominence in parliamentary proceedings, unlike the Attorney General or Speaker. - Which article declares the Indian Constitution as the supreme law?
(A) Article 12
(B) Article 13
(C) Article 368
(D) Preamble
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 13 declares the Constitution as the supreme law by stating that any law inconsistent with Fundamental Rights is void. It establishes judicial review, empowering courts to strike down unconstitutional laws, ensuring constitutional supremacy.