MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- Who was the first woman Chief Minister in India?
(A) Sucheta Kripalani
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Sucheta Kripalani was the first woman Chief Minister of India, serving in Uttar Pradesh from 1963 to 1967. A prominent freedom fighter, her appointment marked a historic milestone in Indian politics, paving the way for women in state leadership roles. - The term ‘State’ has been defined in which Article of the Constitution?
(A) Article 10
(B) Article 12
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 20
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 12 defines the term ‘State’ for the purposes of Part III (Fundamental Rights), including the Government and Parliament of India, state governments, legislatures, and local or other authorities under Union control. This broad definition ensures Fundamental Rights apply to a wide range of public entities. - Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union Legislature?
(A) Part IV
(B) Part V
(C) Part VI
(D) Part VIII
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part V (Articles 79–122) deals with the Union Legislature, comprising the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. It outlines their composition, powers, procedures, and privileges, establishing the framework for India’s parliamentary system at the national level. - How many members are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 80, the President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha for their contributions to arts, literature, sciences, or social services. These nominations enhance the upper house’s expertise, complementing the 238 elected members from states and Union territories. - Which Article empowers the Parliament to make laws for Union Territories?
(A) Article 239
(B) Article 240
(C) Article 241
(D) Article 242
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 240 empowers Parliament to make laws for Union Territories to regulate their governance, peace, and progress. Unlike states, Union territories are directly administered by the Centre, with Parliament having plenary legislative authority over them. - The Constitution of India provides for how many types of emergencies?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Constitution provides for three types of emergencies: National Emergency (Article 352, war or armed rebellion), State Emergency or President’s Rule (Article 356, failure of state machinery), and Financial Emergency (Article 360, financial instability). Each addresses distinct crises with specific safeguards. - The concept of Fundamental Rights is borrowed from –
(A) UK Constitution
(B) US Constitution
(C) Irish Constitution
(D) Canadian Constitution
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Fundamental Rights (Part III, Articles 12–35) were inspired by the US Constitution, particularly its Bill of Rights. These justiciable rights, including equality, freedom, and constitutional remedies, ensure individual liberties and protection against state overreach, adapted to India’s context. - Which constitutional authority can initiate a motion of impeachment against the President?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 61, a motion for the impeachment of the President for violation of the Constitution can be initiated by either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha). It requires a two-thirds majority, with the other house investigating, ensuring a rigorous accountability process. - The procedure for amendment to the Constitution is laid down in –
(A) Article 350
(B) Article 360
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 370
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 368 in Part XX outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution, requiring a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting) and, for certain provisions, ratification by half the state legislatures. It balances flexibility with the protection of the basic structure. - Which Article guarantees protection of interests of minorities?
(A) Article 29
(B) Article 30
(C) Both A and B
(D) Article 32
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 29 protects the cultural and educational rights of minorities to preserve their language, script, or culture, while Article 30 grants them the right to establish and administer educational institutions. Together, these Fundamental Rights safeguard minority interests, ensuring diversity and equality. - Which is the maximum number of seats in the Legislative Council of a state?
(A) 1/2 of Assembly
(B) 1/3 of Assembly
(C) 1/4 of Assembly
(D) 1/5 of Assembly
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 171, the maximum strength of a State Legislative Council is one-third of the Legislative Assembly’s strength, ensuring it remains a smaller, deliberative upper house. The minimum is 40 members, balancing representation and efficiency in bicameral states. - Who is the head of the armed forces in India?
(A) Defense Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Chief of Defence Staff
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 53, the President is the Supreme Commander of the Indian armed forces, a ceremonial role symbolizing national sovereignty. Operational control lies with the Defence Minister and military leadership, including the Chief of Defence Staff, but the President holds the constitutional headship. - The three-language formula was recommended by –
(A) Kothari Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Mandal Commission
(D) Punchhi Commission
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Kothari Commission (1964–66) recommended the three-language formula for education, promoting the study of Hindi, English, and a regional language to foster linguistic integration and national unity. Other commissions focused on different issues (e.g., Mandal on OBC reservations, Sarkaria on Centre-state relations). - Who among the following decides the number of judges in a High Court?
(A) President
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) State Governor
(D) Parliament
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 216, the President determines the number of judges in a High Court, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the state’s Governor. This ensures adequate judicial capacity while maintaining executive oversight over judicial appointments. - Which part of the Constitution deals with the Public Service Commissions?
(A) Part XII
(B) Part XIII
(C) Part XIV
(D) Part XV
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Part XIV (Articles 315–323) deals with the Public Service Commissions, establishing the UPSC and State Public Service Commissions for recruitment to civil services. It ensures merit-based appointments and independence, safeguarding the integrity of public administration. - Which Constitutional Amendment included the Fundamental Duties?
(A) 40th
(B) 42nd
(C) 44th
(D) 52nd
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Part IVA (Article 51A), adding 10 Fundamental Duties (later 11 by the 86th Amendment) for citizens, such as respecting the Constitution and promoting harmony. These duties balance Fundamental Rights with civic responsibilities. - Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) Promotion of international peace
(B) Free and compulsory education
(C) Equal pay for equal work
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Promotion of international peace (Article 51), free and compulsory education (Article 45, post-86th Amendment), and equal pay for equal work (Article 39(d)) are Directive Principles in Part IV. The Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) is a Fundamental Right in Part III, not a Directive Principle. - The President of India addresses his resignation letter to –
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Vice-President
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 56, the President submits their resignation to the Vice-President, who acts as President until a new President is elected. This ensures a smooth transition in the constitutional headship, maintaining continuity in governance. - Which Article empowers the Governor to grant pardons?
(A) Article 72
(B) Article 161
(C) Article 163
(D) Article 164
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 161 empowers the Governor to grant pardons, reprieves, or commutations for offenses under state laws, mirroring the President’s powers under Article 72 for Union laws. This discretionary authority is exercised on the advice of the state’s Council of Ministers. - How long can the President’s rule be extended beyond one year with Parliamentary approval?
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 356, President’s Rule in a state can be extended beyond one year with Parliamentary approval every six months, up to a maximum of three years, as per the 44th Amendment Act (1978). This limit prevents prolonged Central control over states, ensuring democratic restoration. - Which body is authorized to decide the disqualification of MPs due to defection?
(A) Election Commission
(B) President
(C) Speaker or Chairman
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Speaker (Lok Sabha) or Chairman (Rajya Sabha) decides on the disqualification of MPs under the Tenth Schedule for defection, as per the 52nd Amendment Act (1985). Their decision is subject to judicial review, ensuring accountability in anti-defection proceedings. - Which article allows the President to promulgate an ordinance when Parliament is not in session?
(A) Article 121
(B) Article 123
(C) Article 125
(D) Article 127
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session, if immediate action is necessary. These ordinances have the force of law but must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of reconvening, ensuring legislative oversight. - Which schedule of the Constitution lists the official languages?
(A) 7th
(B) 8th
(C) 9th
(D) 10th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists 22 official languages recognized by the Constitution, including Hindi, Tamil, and Maithili. Added or expanded by amendments (e.g., 21st, 92nd), it promotes linguistic diversity while supporting official communication under Article 343. - Which amendment added the words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ to the Preamble?
(A) 40th
(B) 42nd
(C) 44th
(D) 52nd
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 added ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ to the Preamble, emphasizing India’s commitment to social justice, religious neutrality, and national unity. These changes reflect the Constitution’s evolving vision during the Emergency period. - What is the minimum age to contest elections for Lok Sabha?
(A) 18 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 30 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 84, the minimum age to contest elections for the Lok Sabha is 25 years, ensuring candidates have sufficient maturity for legislative responsibilities. This contrasts with the 30-year minimum for the Rajya Sabha, reflecting the upper house’s deliberative role. - The Finance Commission is constituted every –
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) 10 years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 280, the Finance Commission is constituted every five years (or earlier, if needed) by the President to recommend the distribution of tax revenues and grants-in-aid between the Centre and states, ensuring fiscal federalism and equitable resource allocation. - Which committee is known as the ‘watchdog of public purse’?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Business Advisory Committee
(D) Finance Committee
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee (PAC), a parliamentary committee, is known as the ‘watchdog of public purse’. It examines government expenditure and audit reports from the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), ensuring accountability and transparency in public finances. - Which writ is issued by the court to release a person detained illegally?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Prohibition
(D) Certiorari
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Habeas Corpus, a writ under Articles 32 and 226, is issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to secure the release of a person detained illegally, ensuring protection against arbitrary detention and upholding personal liberty. - Who among the following cannot be impeached?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Governor
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The President (Article 61), Vice-President (Article 67), and Chief Justice (as a judge under Article 124) can be impeached for specific grounds like constitutional violation or misconduct. Governors, appointed under Article 155, serve at the President’s pleasure (Article 156) and cannot be impeached, only removed. - The Right to Information Act came into force in the year –
(A) 2002
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Right to Information Act came into force on October 12, 2005, empowering citizens to access information from public authorities. It promotes transparency and accountability, building on earlier state-level laws like Tamil Nadu’s RTI Act (1997). - Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18?
(A) 59th
(B) 61st
(C) 63rd
(D) 65th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 amended Article 326, reducing the voting age from 21 to 18 for Lok Sabha and state assembly elections. This expanded democratic participation, enfranchising younger citizens in India’s electoral process. - Which Article of the Constitution provides for promotion of Hindi language?
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 348
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 351 directs the state to promote the Hindi language and its development as a medium of expression, while encouraging the assimilation of vocabulary from other Indian languages. It supports linguistic integration without undermining regional languages. - Which Article provides for the protection of interests of Scheduled Castes and Tribes?
(A) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(C) Article 340
(D) Article 342
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 335 ensures that the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are considered in public service appointments, balancing efficiency with affirmative action. Article 338 establishes the National Commission for SCs, while Article 342 defines SC/ST lists. - The National Integration Council was established in –
(A) 1960
(B) 1962
(C) 1965
(D) 1970
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The National Integration Council was established in 1962 under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to promote unity and address issues like communalism and regionalism. It serves as a forum for dialogue among political leaders, intellectuals, and stakeholders to foster national cohesion. - Which Article relates to the establishment of a High Court in each state?
(A) Article 214
(B) Article 215
(C) Article 216
(D) Article 217
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 214 provides for the establishment of a High Court for each state, acting as the highest judicial authority at the state level. Some High Courts serve multiple states/Union territories, ensuring judicial oversight under the Constitution. - The writ of ‘Quo Warranto’ is issued –
(A) To release a detained person
(B) To stop proceedings of lower court
(C) To know under what authority a person holds office
(D) To command performance of duty
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Quo Warranto, issued under Articles 32 and 226, challenges the authority under which a person holds a public office. It ensures that only eligible individuals occupy such positions, protecting the integrity of public appointments. - The first woman to preside over the Lok Sabha was –
(A) Meira Kumar
(B) Sumitra Mahajan
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Sucheta Kripalani
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Meira Kumar was the first woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha, serving from 2009 to 2014. Her tenure marked a significant milestone in gender representation, overseeing parliamentary proceedings with impartiality and authority. - Which state was granted special powers under Article 371A?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Mizoram
(C) Sikkim
(D) Jammu & Kashmir
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 371A, added by the 13th Amendment Act (1962), grants special provisions to Nagaland, protecting its customary laws, religious practices, and land rights. Similar provisions exist for other states (e.g., Mizoram under Article 371G), but Article 371A is specific to Nagaland. - The concurrent list contains subjects of –
(A) National importance only
(B) Local importance only
(C) Common interest of both Union and States
(D) Residuary subjects
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule contains 52 subjects (e.g., education, marriage) of common interest to both the Union and states, allowing both to legislate. In case of conflict, Union law prevails under Article 254, ensuring coordinated governance. - The Vice-President can act as President for a maximum period of –
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 65, the Vice-President can act as President for a maximum of six months in case of a vacancy due to resignation, death, or removal, until a new President is elected. This ensures continuity in the constitutional headship. - Which fundamental right is protected under Article 19(1)(a)?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Education
(C) Right to Freedom of Speech
(D) Right to Life
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 19(1)(a) protects the right to freedom of speech and expression, a key Fundamental Right subject to reasonable restrictions (e.g., public order, defamation). It underpins democratic participation, enabling free discourse and media freedom. - Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(A) M. A. Ayyangar
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
(D) Hukam Singh
Answer: (B)
Explanation: G.V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, serving from 1952 to 1956. Known as the ‘Father of Lok Sabha’, he established parliamentary conventions, ensuring impartial conduct and strengthening India’s legislative framework. - Which part of the Constitution deals with the State Government?
(A) Part V
(B) Part VI
(C) Part VII
(D) Part VIII
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part VI (Articles 152–237) deals with the state government, covering the structure, powers, and functions of the state executive (Governor, Chief Minister), legislature, and judiciary (High Courts). It outlines the federal framework for state governance. - What is the maximum tenure of the Rajya Sabha member?
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) Till age 65
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 83, the tenure of a Rajya Sabha member is six years, with one-third of members retiring every two years, ensuring continuity. There is no age-based limit like 65, distinguishing it from the Lok Sabha’s five-year term. - The concept of ‘Double Citizenship’ is not applicable in India because –
(A) India is a federation
(B) India follows single citizenship
(C) It’s not allowed by Constitution
(D) It is against the Preamble
Answer: (B)
Explanation: India follows single citizenship, granting one national citizenship to all citizens, as per Part II (Articles 5–11). Unlike federal systems like the USA with state and national citizenship, this unitary feature promotes national unity and avoids regional divisions. - Which body is responsible for demarcating the boundaries of constituencies?
(A) Parliament
(B) Election Commission
(C) Delimitation Commission
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Delimitation Commission, established under the Delimitation Act, demarcates boundaries of Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies based on census data. It operates independently, with the Election Commission implementing its decisions, ensuring fair representation. - Which of the following is not a parliamentary committee?
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimates Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Law Commission
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, and Committee on Public Undertakings are parliamentary committees overseeing financial and public sector accountability. The Law Commission is a non-parliamentary advisory body under the Law Ministry, recommending legal reforms. - The function of the UPSC is mentioned in –
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 321
(D) Article 323
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 320 outlines the functions of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), including conducting examinations for All India Services and advising on civil service appointments and disciplinary matters. Article 315 establishes the UPSC, while Article 320 details its operational role. - Which Amendment Act is known for strengthening anti-defection law?
(A) 91st
(B) 93rd
(C) 95th
(D) 97th
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 strengthened the anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule) by limiting the size of the Council of Ministers and preventing defectors from holding public office until re-elected. It reinforced the 52nd Amendment (1985) to curb political defections. - Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with disqualification on grounds of defection?
(A) 8th
(B) 9th
(C) 10th
(D) 11th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act (1985), deals with disqualification on grounds of defection for MPs and MLAs who voluntarily give up party membership or vote against party directives. It promotes political stability and loyalty.