MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- Which Article empowers the Parliament to make laws on any matter in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation?
(A) Article 249
(B) Article 250
(C) Article 251
(D) Article 252
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on State List subjects during a National Emergency proclaimed under Article 352. This provision temporarily shifts legislative authority to the Union to address crisis situations, ensuring uniform governance, with such laws ceasing six months after the emergency ends. - Which of the following languages was added to the Eighth Schedule by the 92nd Amendment Act?
(A) Bodo
(B) Dogri
(C) Maithili
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santali to the Eighth Schedule, increasing the total to 22 languages. This inclusion recognizes India’s linguistic diversity, promoting the preservation and development of these languages in official and cultural contexts. - Which of the following Articles deals with the Election Commission?
(A) Article 320
(B) Article 324
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 328
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 324 establishes the Election Commission of India, vesting it with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. This constitutional body ensures free and fair elections, safeguarding democratic integrity. - Who among the following has the power to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(A) President
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 110, the Speaker of Lok Sabha has the final authority to decide whether a bill is a Money Bill, which deals with taxation, borrowing, or expenditure. The Speaker’s decision is binding and not subject to judicial review, ensuring smooth financial legislation in Parliament. - What is the maximum permissible strength of the Rajya Sabha?
(A) 245
(B) 250
(C) 260
(D) 275
Answer: (B)
Explanation: As per Article 80, the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is 250 members, comprising 238 elected representatives from states and Union territories and 12 nominated by the President for expertise in fields like arts or science. The current strength is 245, including vacancies. - The 86th Amendment Act deals with which of the following rights?
(A) Right to Property
(B) Right to Education
(C) Right to Information
(D) Right to Food
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 introduced Article 21A, making the right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 a Fundamental Right. It also amended Article 45 for early childhood care and added a parental duty under Article 51A(k). - Which Article of the Constitution empowers the High Courts to issue writs?
(A) Article 226
(B) Article 227
(C) Article 228
(D) Article 229
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs (habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, quo warranto) for enforcing Fundamental Rights and other legal rights. This broader jurisdiction, compared to the Supreme Court’s Article 32, ensures accessible justice at the state level. - Which Article guarantees the right to freedom of religion?
(A) Article 23
(B) Article 25
(C) Article 27
(D) Article 29
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 25 guarantees the right to freedom of religion, allowing individuals to profess, practice, and propagate their religion, subject to public order, morality, and health. It ensures secularism by balancing individual rights with state regulation of religious practices. - Which Committee is responsible for examining the estimates of expenditure of the Government of India?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Ethics Committee
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Estimates Committee, a parliamentary committee, examines the estimates of expenditure in the Union Budget to ensure economy, efficiency, and administrative feasibility. Comprising Lok Sabha members, it scrutinizes government spending proposals before parliamentary approval. - The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting elections to –
(A) Parliament
(B) State Legislatures
(C) Offices of the President and Vice-President
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 324, the Election Commission conducts elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. Its mandate ensures impartial and transparent electoral processes across these constitutional bodies, upholding democratic principles. - In the case of conflict between the Centre and State laws on a subject in the Concurrent List, which law prevails?
(A) State law
(B) Centre law
(C) Judiciary’s interpretation
(D) President’s decision
Answer: (B)
Explanation: As per Article 254, in case of a conflict between Centre and state laws on a Concurrent List subject, the Centre’s law prevails. However, a state law can prevail if it receives Presidential assent after being reserved by the Governor, ensuring Union supremacy in shared jurisdictions. - Which Amendment removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 52nd
(D) 61st
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 removed the Right to Property from Fundamental Rights (Article 31) and reclassified it as a legal right under Article 300A. This change facilitated land reforms and reduced judicial challenges to state acquisitions. - The President’s rule is imposed under which Article?
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 365
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 356 allows the imposition of President’s Rule in a state if the Governor reports a failure of constitutional machinery. The President assumes state functions, subject to parliamentary approval, ensuring Union intervention during governance breakdowns, as seen in cases like Uttar Pradesh (1996). - Which of the following is NOT a method of constitutional amendment?
(A) By simple majority
(B) By special majority
(C) By referendum
(D) By special majority with state ratification
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 368 outlines constitutional amendment methods: simple majority for non-core provisions (e.g., delimitation), special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting), and special majority with ratification by half the states for federal provisions. Referendum is not used in India, unlike in some countries like Ireland. - Which Article prohibits untouchability?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, making it a punishable offense under laws like the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. This Fundamental Right promotes social equality and dignity, addressing historical caste-based discrimination. - The term ‘Constitutional Emergency’ is associated with –
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 368
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A Constitutional Emergency, also known as President’s Rule, is imposed under Article 356 when a state’s constitutional machinery fails. It allows the Centre to assume state governance, distinguishing it from National Emergency (Article 352) or Financial Emergency (Article 360). - Who acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Speaker
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Vice-President
(D) President
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 64, the Vice-President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, presiding over its proceedings. This role ensures impartial conduct of debates and maintenance of order in the upper house, distinct from the Lok Sabha Speaker’s role. - The final authority to interpret the Constitution lies with –
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) President
(D) Attorney General
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Supreme Court, under Articles 32 and 137, is the final authority to interpret the Constitution. Through judicial review and landmark cases like Minerva Mills (1980), it ensures constitutional supremacy, safeguarding its provisions against legislative or executive overreach. - Which Article deals with the power of the President to grant pardon?
(A) Article 72
(B) Article 74
(C) Article 75
(D) Article 76
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, or commutations in cases involving Union laws, death sentences, or military courts. This discretionary power, exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers, balances justice with mercy, as seen in high-profile cases. - Which part of the Constitution deals with the Amendment of the Constitution?
(A) Part XIX
(B) Part XX
(C) Part XXI
(D) Part XXII
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part XX (Article 368) governs the amendment of the Constitution, detailing procedures like special majority and state ratification for specific provisions. It ensures the Constitution remains adaptable while protecting its basic structure, as upheld in Kesavananda Bharati (1973). - The right to equality before law is guaranteed under –
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 15
(D) Article 16
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees the right to equality before law and equal protection of laws for all persons within India, citizens and non-citizens alike. It forms the cornerstone of the Right to Equality, ensuring fairness and non-discrimination in legal processes. - Which Article of the Constitution provides for a Finance Commission?
(A) Article 280
(B) Article 282
(C) Article 284
(D) Article 288
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 280 mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years to recommend the distribution of tax revenues, grants-in-aid, and fiscal measures between the Centre and states, fostering equitable financial federalism. - The term ‘secular’ in the Indian Constitution implies –
(A) Anti-religion
(B) Equal treatment of all religions
(C) Promotion of a single religion
(D) Complete religious freedom without restrictions
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The term ‘secular’, added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976), implies equal treatment of all religions by the state, ensuring neutrality and non-discrimination. India’s secularism promotes coexistence, balancing religious freedom (Articles 25–28) with state regulation. - In which part of the Constitution are Fundamental Duties mentioned?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part IVA
(D) Part V
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Part IVA (Article 51A), added by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976), lists 11 Fundamental Duties for citizens, such as respecting the Constitution and promoting harmony. These non-justiciable duties balance Fundamental Rights, encouraging civic responsibility. - Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Parliamentary form of government
(B) Presidential system
(C) Secularism
(D) Federal structure
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution features a parliamentary system, secularism, and a federal structure with unitary bias. The presidential system, where the executive is independent of the legislature, is not adopted, as India follows the UK-inspired parliamentary model. - Which schedule of the Constitution deals with anti-defection?
(A) 8th Schedule
(B) 9th Schedule
(C) 10th Schedule
(D) 11th Schedule
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 10th Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act (1985), contains the anti-defection law, disqualifying MPs or MLAs for voluntarily giving up party membership or voting against party directives. It aims to ensure political stability and loyalty. - Who decides the salary and service conditions of the Chief Election Commissioner?
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Election Commission itself
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Parliament determines the salary and service conditions of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners under Article 324, aligning their emoluments with those of Supreme Court judges. This ensures independence while maintaining legislative oversight. - What is the tenure of the members of the Rajya Sabha?
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) 7 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 83, Rajya Sabha members have a tenure of six years, with one-third of the seats retiring biennially. This staggered system ensures continuity in the upper house, distinguishing it from the Lok Sabha’s five-year term. - Which authority decides disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President?
(A) Parliament
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Election Commission
(D) Cabinet
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 71, the Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction to resolve disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President. This ensures impartial adjudication, maintaining the integrity of these high constitutional offices. - The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from –
(A) USA
(B) Ireland
(C) UK
(D) USSR
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36–51) were borrowed from the Irish Constitution. These non-justiciable principles guide the state in promoting social, economic, and political justice, reflecting India’s welfare state aspirations. - Which Fundamental Right is protected even during Emergency?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 21
(D) Both B and C
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Articles 20 (protection against conviction) and 21 (right to life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended during a National Emergency under Article 359, as per the 44th Amendment Act (1978). This ensures safeguards against arbitrary state actions remain intact. - Which committee recommended the abolition of the Planning Commission?
(A) Narsimham Committee
(B) Rangarajan Committee
(C) Bibek Debroy Committee
(D) None – it was a decision of the Union Government
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Planning Commission was abolished in 2015 by a Union Government decision, replaced by NITI Aayog. No specific committee recommended its abolition, though various reports (e.g., Rangarajan) critiqued its functioning, prompting the government’s reform initiative. - The provision for a National Emergency is found in –
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 368
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 352 provides for a National Emergency, proclaimed by the President in cases of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. It centralizes powers, allowing suspension of certain rights and extended legislative sessions, subject to parliamentary approval. - Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended during Emergency?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 21
(D) Both B and C
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Articles 20 (protection against retrospective laws, double jeopardy, self-incrimination) and 21 (right to life and personal liberty) remain protected during a National Emergency, as mandated by the 44th Amendment Act (1978), ensuring core constitutional safeguards. - The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was inspired by –
(A) French Constitution
(B) Irish Constitution
(C) American Constitution
(D) British Constitution
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Preamble, with its emphasis on ‘We the People’ and sovereignty, was inspired by the American Constitution. It declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, setting the foundational values guiding the Constitution’s interpretation. - The ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ is applicable to –
(A) Judges
(B) Civil Servants
(C) Ministers
(D) Members of Parliament
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Doctrine of Pleasure under Article 310 applies to civil servants, allowing their removal by the President or Governor without reason, subject to Article 311 safeguards (e.g., inquiry for misconduct). Judges, ministers, and MPs are governed by separate constitutional provisions. - Who among the following presides over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 118, the Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses, convened by the President to resolve deadlocks on non-money bills. The Speaker’s role ensures impartial conduct, as seen in rare instances like the Dowry Prohibition Bill (1961). - The system of parliamentary democracy in India is borrowed from –
(A) USA
(B) Canada
(C) UK
(D) Australia
Answer: (C)
Explanation: India’s parliamentary democracy, where the executive is drawn from and accountable to the legislature, is borrowed from the United Kingdom. Features like collective responsibility (Article 75) and the Prime Minister’s leadership reflect the Westminster model. - Who was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court?
(A) Fathima Beevi
(B) Leila Seth
(C) Ruma Pal
(D) Indu Malhotra
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Justice Fathima Beevi was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court, appointed in 1989. Her appointment marked a significant step in gender representation, paving the way for other women judges in India’s apex judiciary. - What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha as per the Constitution?
(A) 542
(B) 543
(C) 545
(D) 552
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Article 81, the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552, including up to 530 elected from states, 20 from Union territories, and 2 nominated Anglo-Indian members (abolished by the 104th Amendment, 2019). The current strength is 543, all elected. - The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes –
(A) Disputes between Union and States
(B) Election of President
(C) Matters of fundamental rights
(D) Appeals from High Court
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 131, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in disputes between the Union and states or between states (e.g., water disputes). Presidential elections (Article 71) and Fundamental Rights (Article 32) are distinct, while appeals (Article 132–134) fall under appellate jurisdiction. - What is the minimum age to contest elections to the Rajya Sabha?
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 40 years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 84, the minimum age to contest elections to the Rajya Sabha is 30 years, ensuring candidates have sufficient maturity for the upper house’s deliberative role. This contrasts with the 25-year minimum for the Lok Sabha. - Which authority allocates symbols to political parties in elections?
(A) Election Commission
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Election Commission allocates symbols to political parties under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, as part of its powers under Article 324. Symbols aid voter recognition, with reserved symbols for recognized parties and free symbols for others. - What is the minimum number of judges required for a Constitutional Bench?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court, under Article 145, requires a minimum of five judges to hear cases involving substantial constitutional questions or to review significant legal issues, as in Kesavananda Bharati (1973). Larger benches (7 or 9) may be constituted for critical cases. - In which year was the first general election held in India?
(A) 1947
(B) 1950
(C) 1951–52
(D) 1955
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The first general election held in India was held between October 1951 and February 1952, electing the first Lok Sabha** and state assemblies. Conducted under the newly enacted Constitution, it was a landmark in establishing India’s democratic process with universal adult franchise. - Which of the following is not a writ?
(A) Prohibition
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Injunction
(D) Mandamus
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Courts (Article 226) issue five writs: Prohibition, Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto. Injunction is a judicial order under civil law, not a constitutional writ, used to restrain or direct actions. - What is the duration tenure of a political party?
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 6 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 243U (Part IX-A, added by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992), the tenure of municipal corporations is five years, ensuring regular elections for urban local bodies. This aligns with the tenure of Panchayats (Article 243E) and state legislatures for democratic continuity. - Which schedule of the Constitution deals with allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha?
(A) Second
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Fourth Schedule details the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha for states and Union territories, as per Article 80. It ensures proportional representation based on population, with periodic adjustments following delimitation or state reorganization. - What is the minimum age to become the President of India?
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 35
(D) 40
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 58, the minimum age to become the President of India is 35 years. This requirement ensures candidates have the experience and maturity needed for the constitutional head’s role, representing national unity and sovereignty. - Which Article allows the President to appoint a Commission to examine the condition of backward classes?
(A) Article 335
(B) Article 340
(C) Article 342
(D) Article 345
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 340 empowers the President to appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes and recommend measures for their upliftment. The Mandal Commission (1980) was formed under this provision, shaping OBC reservation policies.