MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- Which of the following is considered the guardian of the Constitution?
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Supreme Court is regarded as the guardian of the Constitution due to its power of judicial review under Articles 32 and 137. Through landmark cases like Kesavananda Bharati (1973), it protects the Constitution’s basic structure, ensuring laws and executive actions align with constitutional provisions. - Which of the following ensures the independence of the judiciary in India?
(A) Security of tenure
(B) Fixed service conditions
(C) Powers to punish for contempt
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Judicial independence is ensured by security of tenure (judges removable only by impeachment under Article 124), fixed service conditions (salaries and allowances protected under Article 125), and powers to punish for contempt (Article 129 for Supreme Court, Article 215 for High Courts). These mechanisms safeguard the judiciary from external interference. - The Vice-President of India is elected by –
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Both Houses of Parliament
(D) People of India
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 66, the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college comprising elected members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). The election uses a single transferable vote system, ensuring proportional representation and excluding direct public or single-house involvement. - The President of India can hold office for –
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 7 years
(D) No fixed term
Answer: (A)
Explanation: As per Article 56, the President holds office for a term of five years from the date of entering office. They are eligible for re-election, but the term is fixed, subject to resignation, impeachment, or removal, ensuring periodic democratic accountability. - Which Article deals with administrative relations between the Union and the States?
(A) Article 256 to 263
(B) Article 246
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 312
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Articles 256 to 263 outline administrative relations between the Union and states, covering obligations of states to comply with Union laws (Article 256), directions from the Centre (Article 257), and institutions like the Inter-State Council (Article 263). These provisions ensure cooperative federalism in governance. - The Chief Minister is –
(A) Elected by the Assembly
(B) Appointed by the Governor
(C) Nominated by the President
(D) Appointed by the Prime Minister
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 164, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, typically the leader of the majority party or coalition in the State Legislative Assembly. This appointment reflects the parliamentary system, where the Chief Minister leads the state executive, accountable to the legislature. - The President is the part of –
(A) Executive
(B) Legislature
(C) Judiciary
(D) Both Executive and Legislature
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The President is part of both the Union Executive (Article 52) and the Parliament (Article 79, comprising the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha). As the constitutional head, the President exercises executive powers (e.g., appointments) and legislative roles (e.g., assenting to bills), bridging the two branches. - Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Sardar Patel
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly, formed in 1947. His leadership was pivotal in crafting the Indian Constitution, adopted on November 26, 1949, earning him the title ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’. - Which Article provides for the promotion of international peace and security?
(A) Article 50
(B) Article 51
(C) Article 48
(D) Article 49
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 51, a Directive Principle, directs the state to promote international peace and security, maintain just relations with nations, foster respect for international law, and encourage arbitration for dispute resolution. It reflects India’s commitment to global harmony and non-alignment. - Which of the following is true about the Preamble?
(A) It is enforceable in court
(B) It is a source of power
(C) It can be amended
(D) It overrides the Constitution
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Preamble can be amended under Article 368, as seen in the 42nd Amendment Act (1976), which added ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’. It is not enforceable in courts, not a source of power, and does not override the Constitution but serves as its guiding philosophy. - Which is the smallest parliamentary constituency in India in terms of voters?
(A) Lakshadweep
(B) Daman & Diu
(C) Sikkim
(D) Andaman & Nicobar
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Lakshadweep, a single Lok Sabha constituency, is the smallest in India in terms of voters, with approximately 50,000–60,000 electors (as per Election Commission data). Its small population and geographic isolation result in fewer voters compared to Daman & Diu, Sikkim, or Andaman & Nicobar. - In which Article is the Council of Ministers mentioned?
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 76
(D) Article 77
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 74 establishes the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, to aid and advise the President, who acts on their advice. It ensures collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha, forming the backbone of India’s parliamentary executive system. - Which Article of the Constitution provides for the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?
(A) Article 338
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 350B
(D) Article 351
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 350B, added by the 7th Amendment Act (1956), provides for the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities by the President. This officer monitors the implementation of safeguards for linguistic minorities, ensuring their rights to language and culture are protected. - Which Amendment made the right to education a Fundamental Right?
(A) 84th
(B) 85th
(C) 86th
(D) 87th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 introduced Article 21A, making the right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 a Fundamental Right. It also amended Article 45 for early childhood care and added a Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(k)) for parents. - The total number of schedules in the Constitution is –
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution has 12 schedules, covering matters like languages (8th), anti-defection (10th), panchayat powers (11th), and municipal functions (12th). Added through amendments (e.g., 73rd and 74th), they provide detailed frameworks for constitutional provisions, enhancing clarity and structure. - The Indian Constitution was adopted on –
(A) 26th January 1950
(B) 26th November 1949
(C) 15th August 1947
(D) 26th January 1949
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949, marking its final approval. It came into force on January 26, 1950, celebrated as Republic Day, establishing India as a sovereign, democratic republic. - Which of the following is not a feature of a federal government?
(A) Dual government
(B) Single citizenship
(C) Division of powers
(D) Supremacy of Constitution
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Federal features include dual government, division of powers (Seventh Schedule), and supremacy of the Constitution. Single citizenship, unique to India, is a unitary feature, promoting national unity by granting one citizenship, unlike dual citizenship in federations like the USA. - The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens are contained in –
(A) Part II
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part III (Articles 12–35) contains the Fundamental Rights, including equality, freedom, protection against exploitation, religion, and constitutional remedies. These justiciable rights ensure individual liberties and equality, enforceable by the Supreme Court and High Courts. - Who was the first woman Governor of an Indian State?
(A) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Sucheta Kripalani
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Sarojini Naidu was the first woman Governor of an Indian state, serving as Governor of Uttar Pradesh from 1947 to 1949. Her appointment marked a historic milestone in gender representation, reflecting her stature as a freedom fighter and poet. - The total number of High Courts in India is –
(A) 24
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 27
Answer: (B)
Explanation: As of June 2025, India has 25 High Courts, each serving one or more states/Union territories, as per Article 214. Examples include the Bombay, Calcutta, and Delhi High Courts, with some like Guwahati serving multiple states, ensuring state-level judicial oversight. - The Supreme Court was established in –
(A) 1950
(B) 1947
(C) 1949
(D) 1951
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Supreme Court was established on January 26, 1950, when the Constitution came into force, replacing the Federal Court of India. Under Article 124, it became the apex judicial body, tasked with constitutional interpretation and appellate jurisdiction. - How many judges were there in the original Supreme Court?
(A) 3 + 1 (Chief Justice)
(B) 5 + 1
(C) 7
(D) 2 + 1
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The original Supreme Court, established in 1950, had 3 judges plus 1 Chief Justice (total 4), as per the Constitution and the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act. The strength was later increased, reaching 34 (including CJI) by 2019 to handle growing caseloads. - The administrative tribunal for service matters was created by –
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 324
(C) Article 226
(D) Article 311
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 323A, added by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976), provides for the establishment of administrative tribunals to adjudicate service-related disputes for public servants. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), set up in 1985, handles such cases, reducing High Court workloads. - The Supreme Court of India is a court of –
(A) Appeal
(B) Record
(C) Original jurisdiction
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Supreme Court is a court of appeal (Articles 132–134), a court of record (Article 129, with binding precedents), and has original jurisdiction (Article 131, for Centre-state disputes). These roles make it the apex court, ensuring constitutional and legal oversight. - Which of the following is not an official language as per the 8th Schedule?
(A) English
(B) Maithili
(C) Bodo
(D) Santali
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists 22 official languages, including Maithili, Bodo, and Santali, added by amendments (e.g., 92nd Amendment, 2003). English is not listed but is used for official purposes under Article 343, reflecting its associate official language status. - Which Amendment provided constitutional status to cooperative societies?
(A) 97th
(B) 91st
(C) 89th
(D) 88th
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 granted constitutional status to cooperative societies by adding Article 43B (promotion of cooperatives) and Part IX-B (Articles 243ZH–243ZT). It mandates their democratic functioning and state support, enhancing their role in economic development. - Who decides on disqualification of MPs under the Anti-Defection Law?
(A) President
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Speaker
(D) Election Commission
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under the Tenth Schedule, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (or Chairman of the Rajya Sabha) decides on the disqualification of MPs for defection. The decision is subject to judicial review, and the President finalizes disqualifications under Article 103 based on the Election Commission’s advice. - Which Amendment Act provided 33% reservation for women in Panchayats?
(A) 72nd
(B) 73rd
(C) 74th
(D) 75th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, under Article 243D, mandated 33% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions, ensuring gender representation in rural governance. This provision, part of Part IX, promotes women’s participation in local decision-making. - The term of municipal corporations is –
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 6 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 243U (Part IX-A, added by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992), the term of municipal corporations is five years, ensuring periodic elections and democratic accountability in urban local bodies, similar to the tenure of Panchayats and state legislatures. - The Municipalities are mentioned in which part of the Constitution?
(A) Part IX
(B) Part IXA
(C) Part X
(D) Part XII
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part IXA (Articles 243P–243ZG), added by the 74th Amendment Act (1992), deals with municipalities, providing for their structure, powers, and elections. It complements Part IX (Panchayats) and ensures constitutional status for urban local governance. - Which of the following deals with Official Language Commission?
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 345
(D) Article 347
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 344 provides for the Official Language Commission, appointed by the President to review the use of Hindi and English in official communication and recommend measures for linguistic integration. It supports Article 343, which designates Hindi as the Union’s official language. - The idea of Parliamentary privileges is borrowed from –
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) France
(D) Ireland
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The concept of Parliamentary privileges, granting MPs and MLAs protections like freedom of speech and immunity from legal action for parliamentary actions, is borrowed from the United Kingdom. Enshrined in Article 105 (Parliament) and Article 194 (state legislatures), it ensures legislative autonomy. - The basic structure theory was upheld again in –
(A) Golaknath Case
(B) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
(C) Minerva Mills Case
(D) S.R. Bommai Case
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The basic structure theory, introduced in the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), was reaffirmed in the Minerva Mills Case (1980). The Supreme Court struck down parts of the 42nd Amendment that undermined judicial review, reinforcing that the Constitution’s basic features cannot be altered. - Which amendment deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 45th
(D) 52nd
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 deleted the Right to Property from Fundamental Rights (Article 31) and reclassified it as a legal right under Article 300A. This facilitated land reforms by allowing state acquisition of property with compensation. - Right to Privacy is protected under which Article?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 22
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Right to Privacy is protected under Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty), as affirmed by the Supreme Court in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017). It encompasses personal autonomy and data protection, expanding the scope of Article 21. - The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act was enacted in –
(A) 1947
(B) 1950
(C) 1956
(D) 1962
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act was enacted in 1956 under Article 262, enabling the creation of tribunals to resolve disputes over inter-state river waters (e.g., Krishna, Godavari). It ensures specialized adjudication, with limited Supreme Court interference. - The first Law Commission in independent India was established in –
(A) 1950
(B) 1955
(C) 1956
(D) 1952
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The first Law Commission in independent India was established in 1955, chaired by M.C. Setalvad. It recommends legal reforms to streamline laws, promote justice, and modernize the legal system, operating as a non-constitutional advisory body under the Law Ministry. - Which constitutional amendment made changes to the preamble?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 52nd
(D) 86th
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 amended the Preamble, adding the words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’. It reinforced India’s commitment to social justice, religious neutrality, and national unity, aligning the Preamble with constitutional values. - The National Human Rights Commission was established in –
(A) 1990
(B) 1993
(C) 1994
(D) 1996
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act. It investigates human rights violations, promotes awareness, and recommends remedies, functioning as a statutory body to uphold constitutional and international human rights standards. - Which Schedule provides details of powers and responsibilities of Panchayats?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 12th
(D) 9th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 11th Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment Act (1992), lists 29 subjects (e.g., agriculture, rural development) assigned to Panchayats under Article 243G. It empowers rural local bodies to plan and implement development programs, promoting decentralized governance. - The Constitution of India is divided into –
(A) 20 parts
(B) 22 parts
(C) 24 parts
(D) 25 parts
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution is divided into 22 parts, covering aspects like the Union, states, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and emergency provisions. This structure, as of 2025, organizes the Constitution’s 448 articles, ensuring a comprehensive framework for governance. - Which one of the following Articles is a safeguard against preventive detention?
(A) Article 20
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 22
(D) Article 23
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 22 provides safeguards against preventive detention, including informing detainees of grounds, allowing representation, and review by an advisory board within three months. These protections balance state security needs with individual rights, applicable to citizens and non-citizens. - Which of the following committees is associated with Panchayati Raj?
(A) Balwantrai Mehta
(B) Ashok Mehta
(C) G.V.K. Rao
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the three-tier Panchayati Raj system, the Ashok Mehta Committee (1978) suggested strengthening it, and the G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985) emphasized grassroots planning. All contributed to the evolution of Part IX and the 73rd Amendment. - Which of the following commissions deals with OBC reservations?
(A) Mandal Commission
(B) Kelkar Commission
(C) Kothari Commission
(D) Sarkaria Commission
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Mandal Commission (1980), chaired by B.P. Mandal, recommended 27% reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in government jobs and education. Its implementation in 1990 transformed affirmative action policies, unlike the Kelkar (fiscal), Kothari (education), or Sarkaria (Centre-state relations) commissions. - The ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ applies to –
(A) President
(B) Judges
(C) Governor
(D) Civil Servants
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Doctrine of Pleasure, under Article 310, allows civil servants to serve at the pleasure of the President (for Union services) or Governor (for state services), subject to dismissal or removal. Exceptions under Article 311 provide safeguards like inquiry for misconduct, ensuring fairness. - Which of the following is not related to election reforms?
(A) T.N. Seshan
(B) Lyngdoh Committee
(C) Indrajit Gupta Committee
(D) Punchhi Commission
Answer: (D)
Explanation: T.N. Seshan (Chief Election Commissioner) strengthened electoral integrity, the Lyngdoh Committee (2006) reformed student elections, and the Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998) recommended state funding for elections. The Punchhi Commission (2007) focused on Centre-state relations, not election reforms. - Who appoints the Chief Minister?
(A) Governor
(B) President
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Speaker
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 164, the Governor appoints the Chief Minister, typically the leader of the majority party or coalition in the State Legislative Assembly. This appointment formalizes the state’s executive leadership, with the Governor acting as the constitutional head. - The power to grant special status to states is under –
(A) Article 370
(B) Article 371
(C) Article 372
(D) Article 373
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 371 (with sub-clauses A to J) provides special provisions for certain states (e.g., Nagaland, Assam, Maharashtra) to protect their cultural, social, or developmental interests. Article 370 (abrogated in 2019) applied only to Jammu & Kashmir, while Articles 372 and 373 are unrelated. - Which amendment empowered Parliament to limit Fundamental Rights during emergency?
(A) 38th
(B) 39th
(C) 40th
(D) 42nd
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) empowered Parliament to limit Fundamental Rights during an emergency by amending Article 359, allowing suspension of their enforcement. The 44th Amendment (1978) later restricted this power, protecting Articles 20 and 21 from suspension. - The number of Lok Sabha constituencies in India is –
(A) 540
(B) 542
(C) 543
(D) 545
Answer: (C)
Explanation: As of June 2025, the Lok Sabha has 543 constituencies, all elected, as per Article 81 and the delimitation of 2002. The abolition of Anglo-Indian nominations (104th Amendment, 2019) removed two nominated seats, fixing the total at 543.