MCQs with Answers and Detailed Explanations
- Who was the first Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) B.R. Ambedkar
(D) G.V. Mavalankar
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, the first Vice-President of India (1952–1962), was the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha under Article 64. His tenure began with the formation of the Rajya Sabha in 1952, where he presided over proceedings, ensuring impartiality and upholding the upper house’s deliberative role. - Which Article allows Parliament to create laws on State List under national interest?
(A) Article 249
(B) Article 250
(C) Article 252
(D) Article 253
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 249 empowers Parliament to legislate on State List subjects if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution, supported by a two-thirds majority, declaring it necessary in the national interest. This provision strengthens the Union’s authority in exceptional circumstances, ensuring coordinated governance while respecting federal principles. - The power to form new states or alter boundaries lies with –
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Article 3, Parliament has the power to form new states, alter boundaries, or change the names of existing states by passing a law with a simple majority. This flexibility reflects India’s unitary bias, allowing the Union to reorganize states (e.g., Telangana in 2014) to address administrative or political needs. - What is the tenure of a Governor in India?
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 6 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: As per Article 156, a Governor is appointed for a term of five years by the President but serves at the President’s pleasure, meaning they can be removed earlier. This tenure ensures continuity in state administration while allowing the Union to exercise oversight over the Governor’s role. - Which Article provides for the composition of Panchayats?
(A) Article 240
(B) Article 243
(C) Article 245
(D) Article 248
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 243, under Part IX (added by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992), defines the composition of Panchayats, establishing a three-tier system (village, intermediate, and district levels). It mandates direct elections, reservations for SC/STs and women, and outlines their structure to promote rural self-governance. - Which Amendment introduced Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
(A) 98th
(B) 99th
(C) 100th
(D) 101st
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2016 introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) by adding Articles 246A, 269A, and 279A. It enabled both Parliament and state legislatures to levy GST and established the GST Council, creating a unified tax system to replace multiple indirect taxes, enhancing fiscal efficiency. - The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in –
(A) 2013
(B) 2014
(C) 2015
(D) 2016
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Planning Commission, established in 1950, was replaced by NITI Aayog on January 1, 2015, through a Cabinet resolution. NITI Aayog, a policy think tank, promotes cooperative federalism by involving states in economic planning, unlike the top-down approach of the Planning Commission. - The first Indian state to enact Right to Information Act was –
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Tamil Nadu was the first state to enact a Right to Information Act in 1997, paving the way for transparency in governance. This state-level initiative preceded the national Right to Information Act, 2005, which standardized access to information held by public authorities across India. - The term ‘Secular’ was added to the Preamble by which Amendment?
(A) 40th
(B) 42nd
(C) 44th
(D) 46th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 added the term ‘Secular’ (along with ‘Socialist’ and ‘Integrity’) to the Preamble, emphasizing India’s commitment to equal treatment of all religions. This amendment reinforced the secular character of the state, ensuring neutrality in religious matters. - Which Article deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers?
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 76
(D) Article 77
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 75 provides for the appointment of the Prime Minister by the President, who then appoints other ministers on the Prime Minister’s advice. The Council of Ministers, collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, forms the Union executive, ensuring parliamentary accountability in governance. - Which Schedule contains the list of Union, State and Concurrent subjects?
(A) Sixth Schedule
(B) Seventh Schedule
(C) Eighth Schedule
(D) Ninth Schedule
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule divides legislative powers into three lists: Union List (100 subjects), State List (61 subjects), and Concurrent List (52 subjects). It defines the scope of legislative authority for Parliament and state legislatures, ensuring a clear federal division of powers. - Which of the following is NOT a writ?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Quo Warranto
(C) Habeas Corpus
(D) Nulla Bona
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Courts (Article 226) can issue five writs: Mandamus, Quo Warranto, Habeas Corpus, Certiorari, and Prohibition. Nulla Bona (meaning ‘no goods’) is a legal term used in execution proceedings, not a writ, indicating no assets are available to satisfy a judgment. - Which body reviews the distribution of revenue between the Centre and the States?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) UPSC
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Finance Commission, constituted every five years under Article 280, reviews and recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and states, including grants-in-aid. It ensures fiscal federalism, unlike the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog), which focused on economic planning, or the Election Commission and UPSC, which have unrelated roles. - Which article deals with special provisions relating to certain classes?
(A) Article 338
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 340
(D) Article 341
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 340 empowers the President to appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes and recommend measures for their advancement. This led to the formation of bodies like the National Commission for Backward Classes, promoting affirmative action for marginalized groups. - How many members are in the current Lok Sabha (elected + nominated)?
(A) 543
(B) 545
(C) 550
(D) 552
Answer: (A)
Explanation: As of June 2025, the Lok Sabha has 543 members (all elected), as per Article 81. The provision for two nominated Anglo-Indian members under Article 331 was abolished by the 104th Amendment Act (2019), effective January 25, 2020, reducing the total strength from 545 to 543. - Who acts as the Chancellor of Central Universities in India?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Vice-President
(D) Minister of Education
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The President of India serves as the Chancellor (or Visitor) of Central Universities under their respective acts (e.g., University Grants Commission Act, 1956). This ceremonial role involves overseeing university governance, appointing vice-chancellors, and ensuring academic standards, reflecting the President’s constitutional stature. - Which of the following Constitutional Amendments is known for reducing the power of the judiciary?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 52nd
(D) 73rd
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, enacted during the Emergency, reduced judicial power by limiting judicial review of laws under the Ninth Schedule and restricting High Courts’ jurisdiction. The 44th Amendment (1978) later restored some judicial powers, ensuring checks and balances in the constitutional framework. - Which Article of the Constitution deals with official language for communication between the Union and the States?
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 345
(C) Article 348
(D) Article 351
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 343 designates Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union and allows English for official communication between the Union and states for 15 years from 1950 (extendable). This provision ensures linguistic coordination while accommodating India’s diversity. - Who has the final power to interpret the Constitution?
(A) President
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Parliament
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Supreme Court is the final interpreter of the Constitution under Articles 32 and 137, exercising judicial review to ensure laws and actions conform to constitutional provisions. Landmark cases like Kesavananda Bharati (1973) affirm its role in upholding the Constitution’s supremacy and basic structure. - Who is known as the first citizen of India?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Vice-President
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The President of India, as the constitutional head under Article 52, is referred to as the first citizen. Representing the nation’s unity and sovereignty, the President holds a ceremonial and symbolic role, distinct from the Prime Minister, who is the executive head. - Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions the duties of the Chief Minister?
(A) Article 164
(B) Article 166
(C) Article 167
(D) Article 170
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 167 outlines the duties of the Chief Minister, including communicating state administration decisions to the Governor, furnishing information as requested, and submitting matters for the Council of Ministers’ consideration. This ensures coordination between the state’s executive and the Governor. - Which body is responsible for recruitment to the All India Services?
(A) SSC
(B) UPSC
(C) Election Commission
(D) Finance Commission
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), established under Article 315, is responsible for recruitment to All India Services (IAS, IPS, IFoS) through competitive examinations. It ensures merit-based selection for these prestigious services, which operate under both Union and state governments. - The 12th Schedule of the Constitution was added by which Amendment?
(A) 73rd
(B) 74th
(C) 76th
(D) 77th
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 added the 12th Schedule, listing 18 functions for municipalities (e.g., urban planning, water supply, public health). It complements Part IX-A (Articles 243P–243ZG), granting constitutional status to urban local bodies and promoting decentralized urban governance. - The Preamble of the Constitution was inspired by –
(A) American Constitution
(B) Irish Constitution
(C) French Constitution
(D) Canadian Constitution
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution, with its emphasis on ‘We the People’ and sovereignty, was inspired by the American Constitution. It outlines India’s objectives as a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, setting the tone for the Constitution’s values and principles. - What is the quorum required to conduct business in Lok Sabha?
(A) 1/5 of total members
(B) 1/4 of total members
(C) 1/10 of total members
(D) 1/3 of total members
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 100, the quorum for conducting business in the Lok Sabha is one-tenth of its total membership (currently 543, so 55 members). This minimum ensures that parliamentary proceedings have sufficient representation while allowing flexibility for legislative work. - Which article provides for equal justice and free legal aid?
(A) Article 38
(B) Article 39
(C) Article 39A
(D) Article 40
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 39A, added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, directs the state to provide equal justice and free legal aid to ensure access to justice, particularly for economically disadvantaged citizens. This Directive Principle promotes fairness in the legal system, complementing Fundamental Rights. - The right to vote in India is a –
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Legal Right
(C) Constitutional Right
(D) Human Right
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The right to vote in India is a legal right under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and Article 326, which mandates adult suffrage for elections. It is not a Fundamental Right (justiciable) or a Constitutional Right (explicitly guaranteed), but a statutory right ensuring democratic participation. - Which language is not listed in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) English
(B) Sindhi
(C) Bodo
(D) Konkani
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists 22 official languages, including Sindhi, Bodo, and Konkani, but English is not included. English is used for official purposes under Article 343 and as an associate official language, but it lacks the constitutional status of scheduled languages. - Which Fundamental Right cannot be suspended even during an emergency?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 22
(D) Article 25
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 20 (protection in respect of conviction for offenses) and Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency under Article 359, as per the 44th Amendment Act (1978). This ensures safeguards against retrospective laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination remain intact. - The President of India can nominate how many members to the Lok Sabha?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) None (post-104th Amendment)
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2019) abolished the provision under Article 331 for the President to nominate two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha, effective January 25, 2020. Currently, the Lok Sabha consists entirely of elected members (543), with no nominated seats. - Who is the head of the State Government?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Governor
(C) Speaker
(D) Home Minister
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state government under Article 164, leading the Council of Ministers and exercising administrative and policy-making powers. The Governor is the nominal head, acting on the Chief Minister’s advice, ensuring constitutional governance at the state level. - Which schedule of the Constitution deals with anti-defection law?
(A) 8th
(B) 9th
(C) 10th
(D) 11th
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985, contains the anti-defection law. It outlines grounds for disqualification of MPs or MLAs for voluntarily giving up party membership or voting against party directives, promoting political stability. - Which Fundamental Right is guaranteed under Article 21A?
(A) Right to life
(B) Right to free education
(C) Right to work
(D) Right to vote
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 21A, added by the 86th Amendment Act of 2002, guarantees the right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years. This Fundamental Right strengthens the right to life (Article 21) by ensuring access to education as a core component of personal development. - Which Article deals with the disqualification of Members of Parliament on grounds of defection?
(A) Article 101
(B) Article 102
(C) Article 103
(D) Article 104
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 102, read with the Tenth Schedule, provides for the disqualification of Members of Parliament on grounds of defection, such as voluntarily giving up party membership or defying party whips. The decision is finalized by the President (on the Election Commission’s advice) under Article 103. - The maximum number of nominated members in the Legislative Council of a State is –
(A) 1/6th
(B) 1/4th
(C) 1/5th
(D) 1/3rd
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 171, the maximum number of nominated members in a State Legislative Council is one-sixth of its total strength. These members, appointed by the Governor for expertise in fields like literature or social service, complement elected members, ensuring diverse representation. - The power to decide on the disqualification of MPs is vested in –
(A) President
(B) Speaker
(C) Election Commission
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under Article 103, the President decides on the disqualification of MPs, acting on the advice of the Election Commission. For defection cases (Tenth Schedule), the Speaker or Chairman initially decides, but the final authority rests with the President, ensuring impartiality. - Which of the following is not part of the State Legislature?
(A) Legislative Assembly
(B) Legislative Council
(C) Governor
(D) High Court
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The State Legislature, under Article 168, comprises the Legislative Assembly, the Legislative Council (in bicameral states), and the Governor, who assents to bills. The High Court is part of the judiciary, not the legislature, and exercises judicial review over state laws. - The State Legislative Assembly has a tenure of –
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 6 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Article 172, the State Legislative Assembly has a tenure of five years, unless dissolved earlier by the Governor (e.g., for early elections or President’s Rule). This term ensures periodic democratic accountability while allowing flexibility for political exigencies. - Who administers the oath to the Governor of a State?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) President
(C) Chief Justice of the High Court
(D) Speaker of the Assembly
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Chief Justice of the High Court (or a senior judge in their absence) administers the oath to the Governor under Article 159. This ceremonial act marks the Governor’s assumption of office as the constitutional head of the state, ensuring adherence to constitutional duties. - The words “Unity and Integrity of the Nation” were added to the Preamble by –
(A) 40th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 52nd Amendment
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 added the words “Unity and Integrity of the Nation” (along with ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’) to the Preamble. This emphasized India’s commitment to national cohesion, particularly during the Emergency period, strengthening the constitutional vision. - Article 280 is related to –
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) UPSC
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 280 provides for the constitution of the Finance Commission every five years by the President to recommend the distribution of tax revenues, grants-in-aid, and other fiscal measures between the Centre and states, ensuring equitable financial federalism. - Which Article of the Constitution relates to the impeachment of the President?
(A) Article 61
(B) Article 72
(C) Article 74
(D) Article 76
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 61 outlines the procedure for the impeachment of the President for violation of the Constitution. It requires a resolution by either house of Parliament, supported by a two-thirds majority, and investigation by the other house, ensuring a rigorous process to maintain accountability. - The Union List consists of –
(A) 97 subjects
(B) 99 subjects
(C) 100 subjects
(D) 66 subjects
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Union List in the Seventh Schedule contains 100 subjects (originally 97, increased by amendments) over which Parliament has exclusive legislative authority. These include defense, foreign affairs, banking, and atomic energy, reflecting the Union’s dominance in national matters. - Which body resolves disputes related to inter-state rivers?
(A) Parliament
(B) High Court
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Inter-State River Water Tribunal
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Inter-State River Water Tribunals, established under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, resolve disputes over inter-state river waters (e.g., Cauvery Tribunal). Under Article 262, Parliament legislates on such disputes, and tribunals provide specialized adjudication, with the Supreme Court having limited appellate jurisdiction. - Which body prepares and executes economic plans in India today?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) NITI Aayog
(C) Finance Ministry
(D) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: (B)
Explanation: NITI Aayog, established in 2015, replaced the Planning Commission and is responsible for formulating and executing economic plans in India. It promotes cooperative federalism by involving states in policy-making, unlike the Finance Ministry (budget-focused) or RBI (monetary policy). - Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) Uniform Civil Code
(B) Free legal aid
(C) Equal pay for equal work
(D) Right to Strike
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Uniform Civil Code (Article 44), free legal aid (Article 39A), and equal pay for equal work (Article 39(d)) are Directive Principles under Part IV. The right to strike, though recognized under labor laws, is not a Directive Principle, as it is a statutory right, not a constitutional mandate. - The idea of ‘Concurrent List’ in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from –
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) Australia
(D) Ireland
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Concurrent List, allowing both Union and state legislatures to legislate on 52 subjects (e.g., education, marriage), was borrowed from the Australian Constitution. This shared jurisdiction, outlined in the Seventh Schedule, balances federal and state powers, with Union laws prevailing in case of conflict (Article 254). - In which year was the Right to Information Act passed?
(A) 2002
(B) 2003
(C) 2005
(D) 2007
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Right to Information Act was passed in 2005, empowering citizens to access information held by public authorities. Building on state-level laws like Tamil Nadu’s (1997), it promotes transparency and accountability in governance, with provisions for penalties on non-compliant officials. - How many states and union territories are there in India (as of 2024)?
(A) 28 states, 8 UTs
(B) 29 states, 7 UTs
(C) 27 states, 9 UTs
(D) 28 states, 7 UTs
Answer: (A)
Explanation: As of 2024, India has 28 states and 8 Union territories (post the 2019 reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir into two UTs). This structure, defined under Article 1, reflects India’s federal framework, with states having legislatures and UTs under varying degrees of Union control. - Which of the following deals with the protection of monuments?
(A) Article 48
(B) Article 49
(C) Article 50
(D) Article 51
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 49, a Directive Principle, directs the state to protect monuments and places of national or historical importance from destruction, damage, or export. This provision supports efforts by bodies like the Archaeological Survey of India to preserve India’s cultural heritage.