Modern Indian History, Indian Polity, Governance, Economics, and Major National Schemes – UPSC MCQ Series (Set 26)

Step into “Set 26” of our UPSC MCQ Series, an extensive collection designed to test your knowledge across a spectrum of essential subjects for the Civil Services Examination. This set delves into pivotal moments and legal frameworks from Modern Indian History, including the Sedition Act, the Ilbert Bill Controversy, and key movements of the freedom struggle. It then transitions into the intricacies of Indian Polity, covering constitutional amendments, fundamental rights and duties, parliamentary procedures, and the roles of vital institutions like the Election Commission and the Supreme Court. Furthermore, it explores core economic concepts, financial institutions, and recent government initiatives across various sectors, from climate action and digital governance to social welfare and skill development. Sharpen your insights into India’s historical evolution, constitutional foundations, economic landscape, and current policy thrusts.

Set 26

1251. The Sedition Act in India was originally introduced in:

A. 1857

B. 1870

C. 1905

D. 1919

Answer: B

Explanation: The law of sedition (Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code) was originally introduced in India in 1870 by the British colonial government to curb dissenting voices against the British Raj.

1252. The Ilbert Bill Controversy (1883) was related to:

A. Rights of Indian women

B. Trial of Britishers by Indian judges

C. Land reforms

D. Press censorship

Answer: B

Explanation: The Ilbert Bill Controversy of 1883 arose from a proposed bill that sought to allow Indian judges to try Europeans in criminal cases. This proposal was met with strong opposition from the British community in India, highlighting racial discrimination and leading to widespread controversy.

1253. The Ghadar Party was founded in:

A. San Francisco

B. London

C. Berlin

D. Lahore

Answer: A

Explanation: The Ghadar Party was an Indian revolutionary organization, primarily formed by Punjabi Indians, established in San Francisco, USA, in 1913 by Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh Bhakna. Its aim was to overthrow British rule in India.

1254. The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn due to:

A. Arrest of Gandhi

B. Jallianwala Bagh massacre

C. Chauri Chaura incident

D. British threat of war

Answer: C

Explanation: The Non-Cooperation Movement, led by Mahatma Gandhi, was called off in February 1922 following the Chauri Chaura incident, where a violent mob set fire to a police station, killing several policemen. Gandhi felt the movement was turning violent and was not ready for mass civil disobedience.

1255. The Subhas Chandra Bose-led government-in-exile was called:

A. Swarajya Mandal

B. Provisional Government of Free India

C. Azad Hind Government

D. Indian Revolutionary Council

Answer: C

Explanation: The government-in-exile formed by Subhas Chandra Bose in Singapore in October 1943 was officially named the Provisional Government of Free India, commonly known as the Azad Hind Government.

1256. The INA trials were held in:

A. Red Fort, Delhi

B. Fort St. George

C. Bombay High Court

D. Allahabad

Answer: A

Explanation: The famous Indian National Army (INA) trials, where officers of the INA were court-martialed by the British Indian government, were held at the Red Fort in Delhi in 1945.

1257. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was:

A. Annie Besant

B. Sarojini Naidu

C. Aruna Asaf Ali

D. Vijayalakshmi Pandit

Answer: A

Explanation: Annie Besant, an Irish socialist, women’s rights activist, and Theosophist, became the first woman President of the Indian National Congress in 1917 at its Calcutta session. Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman President (1925).

1258. The Kheda Satyagraha was associated with:

A. Peasant tax relief

B. Forest rights

C. Temple entry

D. Salt law

Answer: A

Explanation: The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918, led by Mahatma Gandhi, revolved around the demand for peasant tax relief. Farmers in Kheda district, Gujarat, were demanding remission of land revenue due to crop failure caused by plague and famine.

1259. The term “Purna Swaraj” was officially adopted by Congress in:

A. 1927

B. 1928

C. 1929

D. 1930

Answer: C

Explanation: The Indian National Congress officially adopted the resolution for “Purna Swaraj” (complete independence) at its Lahore Session in December 1929, under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru.

1260. The Viceroy during the Dandi March was:

A. Lord Reading

B. Lord Irwin

C. Lord Willingdon

D. Lord Linlithgow

Answer: B

Explanation: The Dandi March (Salt Satyagraha) took place in 1930. Lord Irwin served as the Viceroy of India from 1926 to 1931, making him the Viceroy during this pivotal event.

1261. The Cabinet Mission of 1946 was headed by:

A. Stafford Cripps

B. Pethick-Lawrence

C. Clement Attlee

D. Winston Churchill

Answer: B

Explanation: The Cabinet Mission of 1946 was a high-powered delegation sent by the British government to India to discuss the transfer of power. It was headed by Lord Pethick-Lawrence, who was the Secretary of State for India. The other two members were Sir Stafford Cripps and A.V. Alexander.

1262. The Indian National Congress first demanded complete independence in:

A. 1925

B. 1927

C. 1929

D. 1931

Answer: C

Explanation: The Indian National Congress formally passed the resolution for “Purna Swaraj” (complete independence) at its Lahore Session in December 1929.

1263. The Act that transferred power from East India Company to the Crown was:

A. Pitt’s India Act

B. Regulating Act

C. Indian Councils Act

D. Government of India Act 1858

Answer: D

Explanation: Following the Revolt of 1857, the Government of India Act of 1858 was enacted, which transferred the powers of governance from the East India Company to the British Crown, making India a direct British colony.

1264. Which constitutional amendment is related to GST?

A. 99th

B. 100th

C. 101st

D. 102nd

Answer: C

Explanation: The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in India by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016. This amendment inserted new articles and amended existing ones to facilitate the GST regime.

1265. The Right to Privacy was declared a Fundamental Right in:

A. 2015

B. 2016

C. 2017

D. 2018

Answer: C

Explanation: In a landmark judgment in August 2017, a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India in the case of K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India unanimously declared the Right to Privacy as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution.

1266. The term “Basic Structure of the Constitution” was established in:

A. Golaknath case

B. Shankari Prasad case

C. Minerva Mills case

D. Kesavananda Bharati case

Answer: D

Explanation: The doctrine of the “Basic Structure of the Constitution” was propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case in 1973. This doctrine holds that Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, but it cannot alter its basic structure.

1267. The number of Fundamental Duties currently is:

A. 10

B. 11

C. 12

D. 9

Answer: B

Explanation: Originally, there were 10 Fundamental Duties, added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. Subsequently, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 added one more duty, making the total number of Fundamental Duties 11.

1268. The Money Bill is certified by:

A. President

B. Finance Minister

C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

D. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Answer: C

Explanation: A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Once it is passed by the Lok Sabha and sent to the Rajya Sabha for recommendations, it is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha whose decision is final on whether a bill is a Money Bill or not.

1269. The Election Commission of India is mentioned in:

A. Article 320

B. Article 324

C. Article 326

D. Article 330

Answer: B

Explanation: The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India. Its provisions are mentioned in Article 324 of the Constitution (Part XV).

1270. Which institution publishes the “Economic Survey”?

A. RBI

B. Ministry of Finance

C. NITI Aayog

D. CSO

Answer: B

Explanation: The Economic Survey is an annual document presented by the Government of India in the Parliament. It is prepared by the Chief Economic Adviser in the Ministry of Finance and reviews the developments in the Indian economy over the past financial year.

1271. The first Union Budget of India was presented in:

A. 1947

B. 1948

C. 1950

D. 1951

Answer: A

Explanation: The first Union Budget of independent India was presented on November 26, 1947, by the then Finance Minister, R.K. Shanmukham Chetty. This budget covered a period of just seven and a half months from August 15, 1947, to March 31, 1948.

1272. The chairperson of GST Council is:

A. President of India

B. Finance Minister

C. PM of India

D. RBI Governor

Answer: B

Explanation: The GST Council is the governing body for GST in India. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance and the Minister in charge of Finance or Taxation or any other Minister nominated by each state government as members.

1273. SEZs are governed under:

A. RBI Act

B. SEZ Act, 2005

C. Industrial Development Act

D. Companies Act

Answer: B

Explanation: Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India are governed by the Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Act, 2005, and the SEZ Rules, 2006. This legal framework provides for the establishment, operation, and incentives for SEZs.

1274. The term “Twin Balance Sheet Problem” is related to:

A. Banking and corporate sector crisis

B. Trade and fiscal deficit

C. Forex and oil prices

D. Government and PSU disinvestment

Answer: A

Explanation: The “Twin Balance Sheet Problem” refers to the phenomenon where the balance sheets of both the banking sector (due to high Non-Performing Assets – NPAs) and the corporate sector (due to over-leveraging and inability to repay debts) are under stress simultaneously.

1275. Repo Rate is decided by:

A. Finance Ministry

B. RBI Governor

C. Monetary Policy Committee

D. SEBI

Answer: C

Explanation: The Repo Rate, a key policy rate, is decided by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The MPC was constituted in 2016 to bring transparency and accountability in deciding monetary policy.

1276. The DICGC provides insurance to:

A. Insurance policy holders

B. Mutual fund investors

C. Bank depositors

D. Stock market investors

Answer: C

Explanation: The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India, provides deposit insurance to bank depositors. It currently covers deposits up to ₹5 lakh per depositor in each bank.

1277. The Headquarters of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is in:

A. Singapore

B. Shanghai

C. Beijing

D. Tokyo

Answer: C

Explanation: The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank that aims to support the building of infrastructure projects in the Asia-Pacific region. Its headquarters are located in Beijing, China.

1278. The first Indian to head the IMF as Chief Economist was:

A. Urjit Patel

B. Gita Gopinath

C. Raghuram Rajan

D. Amartya Sen

Answer: B

Explanation: Gita Gopinath became the first Indian (and first woman) to be appointed as the Chief Economist of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in January 2019. She later became the First Deputy Managing Director of the IMF.

1279. The UNDP’s Human Development Index (HDI) includes:

A. Income, education, health

B. Employment, equality, poverty

C. GDP, GNP, PPP

D. Sanitation, schooling, security

Answer: A

Explanation: The Human Development Index (HDI), published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), is a composite statistic that measures three key dimensions of human development: a long and healthy life (health), access to knowledge (education), and a decent standard of living (income).

1280. The Paris Agreement aims to limit global warming below:

A. 1°C

B. 1.5°C

C. 2°C

D. 2.5°C

Answer: C

Explanation: The Paris Agreement, a legally binding international treaty on climate change, aims to limit global warming to well below 2°C, preferably to 1.5°C, compared to pre-industrial levels. While 1.5°C is the more ambitious target, 2°C represents the upper limit it seeks to avoid exceeding.

1281. India’s target of achieving net zero emissions is set for:

A. 2040

B. 2047

C. 2050

D. 2070

Answer: D

Explanation: At the COP26 climate summit in 2021, Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced India’s target to achieve net zero emissions by 2070.

1282. The State of Forest Report is published by:

A. Ministry of Environment

B. FSI (Forest Survey of India)

C. Botanical Survey of India

D. CPCB

Answer: B

Explanation: The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is a biennial publication of the Forest Survey of India (FSI), an organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. It assesses the forest and tree resources of the country.

1283. The first carbon-neutral panchayat in India is in:

A. Gujarat

B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Kerala

D. Jammu & Kashmir

Answer: D

Explanation: Palli village in Samba district, Jammu & Kashmir, became India’s first carbon-neutral panchayat in April 2022. It achieved this status by completely switching to solar power.

1284. National Hydrogen Mission was announced in:

A. 2019

B. 2020

C. 2021

D. 2022

Answer: C

Explanation: The National Hydrogen Mission was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on India’s 75th Independence Day, August 15, 2021, with the aim to make India a global hub for green hydrogen production and export.

1285. The mission to digitize land records is known as:

A. PM-AASHA

B. Digital India Bhoomi

C. DILRMP

D. e-Kisan Bhoomi

Answer: C

Explanation: The mission to digitize and modernize land records in India is known as the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP). It aims to develop an integrated land information management system.

1286. The first Digital University in India was established in:

A. Gujarat

B. Kerala

C. Maharashtra

D. Tamil Nadu

Answer: B

Explanation: The Kerala University of Digital Sciences, Innovation and Technology (also known as Kerala Digital University) was inaugurated in February 2021 in Technocity, Mangalapuram, Kerala, becoming India’s first Digital University.

1287. National Tele Mental Health Programme was launched in:

A. Budget 2020

B. Budget 2021

C. Budget 2022

D. Budget 2023

Answer: C

Explanation: The National Tele Mental Health Programme was announced by the Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in the Union Budget 2022-23 to provide access to quality mental health counseling and care services across the country.

1288. The eSanjeevani platform is for:

A. Online tax filing

B. Digital health consultations

C. Job placements

D. e-Governance in agriculture

Answer: B

Explanation: The eSanjeevani platform is a national telemedicine service that facilitates digital health consultations between patients and doctors from the comfort of their homes, thereby bridging the rural-urban health divide.

1289. Mission Vatsalya focuses on:

A. Rural entrepreneurship

B. Child welfare and protection

C. Gender budgeting

D. Elder care

Answer: B

Explanation: Mission Vatsalya is an umbrella scheme by the Ministry of Women and Child Development focusing on child welfare and protection. It includes components like child protection services, institutional care, and rehabilitation.

1290. The PM SHRI Scheme relates to:

A. Infrastructure in railway stations

B. Model schools

C. Housing for women

D. Border security

Answer: B

Explanation: The PM SHRI (PM ScHools for Rising India) Scheme, launched in 2022, aims to upgrade and develop over 14,500 schools across India as model schools that will showcase the National Education Policy 2020 and be exemplars for other schools.

1291. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act was passed in:

A. 2022

B. 2023

C. 2021

D. Not yet passed

Answer: B

Explanation: The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, a landmark legislation governing data protection in India, was passed by both Houses of Parliament in August 2023 and received presidential assent.

1292. The Ujjwala 2.0 scheme includes:

A. Free refill and stove

B. Solar subsidy

C. Skill training

D. Employment guarantee

Answer: A

Explanation: Ujjwala 2.0, an extension of the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, goes beyond providing just a free LPG connection. It also includes the provision of a free first refill and a hotplate (stove) to beneficiaries, especially migrant families.

1293. The full form of EVIN in vaccine management is:

A. Electronic Vaccine Intelligence Network

B. Energy and Vaccine Infrastructure Network

C. e-Village India Net

D. Electronic Vital Index for Nutrition

Answer: A

Explanation: eVIN stands for Electronic Vaccine Intelligence Network. It is an innovative technological solution aimed at strengthening routine immunization by providing real-time information on vaccine stocks and flows, and storage temperatures across all cold chain points in the country.

1294. e-RUPI is a:

A. Cryptocurrency

B. Digital currency

C. Prepaid voucher

D. Government bond

Answer: C

Explanation: e-RUPI is a digital payment solution launched by the Prime Minister in August 2021. It is a cashless and contactless instrument for digital payment, functioning as a prepaid voucher delivered to beneficiaries via SMS string or QR code. It is not a cryptocurrency or a digital currency (like CBDC).

1295. The SVAMITVA scheme provides:

A. Land title records

B. Housing loans

C. Farm subsidies

D. Urban employment

Answer: A

Explanation: The SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) Scheme, launched in April 2020, aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India. It uses drone technology to map rural residential areas and provide land title records (property cards) to rural household owners.

1296. The first 5G rollout in India began in:

A. Jan 2022

B. Aug 2022

C. Oct 2022

D. Jan 2023

Answer: C

Explanation: The official launch of 5G services in India began on October 1, 2022, when Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched 5G services at the India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2022 in Delhi.

1297. The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative by:

A. RBI

B. Ministry of Commerce

C. DPIIT

D. TRAI

Answer: C

Explanation: The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It aims to create an open and interoperable network for digital commerce across various sectors.

1298. The RAMP scheme is meant to:

A. MSME competitiveness

B. Renewable energy

C. Railways

D. Armed forces modernization

Answer: A

Explanation: The RAMP (Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance) scheme is a World Bank-assisted Central Sector Scheme launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME). Its objective is to improve the competitiveness of MSMEs.

1299. SHREYAS scheme targets:

A. Higher education apprenticeships

B. Digital governance

C. Forest protection

D. Women entrepreneurship

Answer: A

Explanation: The SHREYAS (Scheme for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and Skills) scheme, launched by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education), aims to provide industry apprenticeship opportunities to fresh graduates and improve their employability through higher education apprenticeships.

1300. The Skill India Mission is implemented by:

A. Ministry of Labour

B. NSDC

C. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

D. NITI Aayog

Answer: C

Explanation: The Skill India Mission (also known as National Skill Development Mission) is a flagship initiative of the Government of India. It is primarily implemented and coordinated by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).

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