Dive into “Set 23” of our UPSC MCQ Series, a curated collection of questions spanning critical aspects of Modern Indian History, Indian Polity, Governance, Economics, and key National Schemes. This set offers an insightful journey from India’s post-independence economic planning, including the Five-Year Plans and industrial policies, to significant constitutional amendments and emergency provisions. Test your knowledge on pivotal economic reforms, landmark judgments, and the evolution of governance mechanisms like Panchayati Raj. Furthermore, challenge yourself with questions on contemporary government initiatives aimed at health, housing, digital inclusion, and rural development, as well as international economic indicators. Prepare comprehensively for your UPSC examination with this diverse and detailed set.
Set 23
1101. The First Five-Year Plan (1951–56) gave top priority to:
A. Industry
B. Agriculture
C. Transport
D. Power
Answer: B
Explanation: The First Five-Year Plan (1951–56) was primarily focused on agriculture, irrigation, and power projects. It aimed at increasing agricultural production to solve the food crisis and to build up the necessary infrastructure for future industrialization.
1102. The Second Five-Year Plan focused on:
A. Agriculture
B. Cottage industries
C. Heavy industries
D. Infrastructure
Answer: C
Explanation: The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61), based on the Mahalanobis model, gave top priority to the development of heavy industries and the capital goods sector, with a focus on rapid industrialization.
1103. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 laid emphasis on:
A. Public-private partnerships
B. Socialist pattern of society
C. Green Revolution
D. Fiscal consolidation
Answer: B
Explanation: The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 emphasized the establishment of a socialist pattern of society by extending the public sector, reducing disparities in income and wealth, and preventing concentration of economic power. It classified industries into three categories based on the role of the state.
1104. The term “mixed economy” in India implies:
A. Only public sector
B. Only private sector
C. Coexistence of both public and private sectors
D. Laissez-faire economy
Answer: C
Explanation: The term “mixed economy” in the Indian context signifies the coexistence of both public and private sectors playing significant roles in economic development. The government controls strategic industries, while the private sector contributes to a wide range of goods and services.
1105. The Bank Nationalization in India occurred in:
A. 1967
B. 1969
C. 1971
D. 1975
Answer: B
Explanation: The first major phase of bank nationalization in India occurred on July 19, 1969, when the government under Indira Gandhi nationalized 14 of the largest commercial banks. A second phase followed in 1980, nationalizing 6 more banks.
1106. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was passed in:
A. 1956
B. 1973
C. 1982
D. 1991
Answer: B
Explanation: The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was enacted in 1973 to regulate foreign exchange transactions and curb illegal foreign exchange activities. It was replaced by the more liberal Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) in 1999 as part of India’s economic reforms.
1107. The Emergency declared in 1975 was under:
A. Article 352
B. Article 356
C. Article 360
D. Article 365
Answer: A
Explanation: The National Emergency declared in India on June 25, 1975, by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, was imposed under Article 352 of the Constitution, citing “internal disturbance” as the reason.
1108. The 44th Amendment Act (1978) restored:
A. Article 370
B. Right to property
C. Article 21 – Right to Life
D. Abolition of untouchability
Answer: C
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 significantly changed the emergency provisions. It stipulated that the fundamental rights guaranteed by Article 20 (protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (protection of life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency. While it did not “restore” Article 21 (as it was always part of the constitution), it ensured its non-suspendability, which was a critical safeguard against executive overreach during an emergency. The 44th Amendment also replaced “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” for declaring a national emergency.
1109. The Minimum Needs Programme (MNP) was launched in:
A. Fifth Five-Year Plan
B. Sixth Plan
C. Fourth Plan
D. Third Plan
Answer: A
Explanation: The Minimum Needs Programme (MNP) was introduced in the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–79). It aimed at providing certain basic minimum needs and improving the living standards of the people, especially the rural poor.
1110. Operation Flood is related to:
A. Agriculture
B. Irrigation
C. Dairy development
D. Flood control
Answer: C
Explanation: Operation Flood was a rural development program launched in 1970 by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) to increase milk production in India. It led to the “White Revolution” and made India the world’s largest milk producer. Hence, it is related to dairy development.
1111. The Green Revolution in India was initiated during:
A. Second Plan
B. Third Plan
C. Fourth Plan
D. Fifth Plan
Answer: B
Explanation: The Green Revolution in India largely began in the mid-1960s, coinciding with the later part of the Third Five-Year Plan (1961–66) and the subsequent three annual plans (1966-69).
1112. The Father of India’s Green Revolution is:
A. Norman Borlaug
B. M.S. Swaminathan
C. Verghese Kurien
D. C. Subramaniam
Answer: B
Explanation: Dr. M.S. Swaminathan is widely recognized as the “Father of the Green Revolution in India” for his role in developing and introducing high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice. Norman Borlaug is considered the Father of the Green Revolution globally.
1113. The Father of India’s White Revolution is:
A. M.S. Swaminathan
B. C. Subramaniam
C. Verghese Kurien
D. Raj Krishna
Answer: C
Explanation: Dr. Verghese Kurien is known as the “Father of India’s White Revolution” (Operation Flood) for his pioneering work in establishing the Anand Pattern of dairy cooperatives.
1114. The term “Hindu Rate of Growth” refers to India’s growth rate before:
A. 1951
B. 1965
C. 1991
D. 2000
Answer: C
Explanation: The term “Hindu Rate of Growth” was coined by economist Raj Krishna to describe the slow annual growth rate of India’s economy (around 3.5%) from the 1950s to the 1980s. This period predates the significant economic reforms initiated in 1991, which led to a higher growth trajectory.
1115. New Economic Policy (1991) included:
A. Liberalization
B. Privatization
C. Globalization
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: The New Economic Policy of 1991 introduced sweeping economic reforms often referred to as LPG reforms, standing for Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization. These policies aimed at integrating the Indian economy with the global economy and increasing efficiency.
1116. The first state to implement GST was:
A. Maharashtra
B. Gujarat
C. Assam
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: C
Explanation: While the Goods and Services Tax (GST) was implemented nationwide on July 1, 2017, Assam was the first state in India to ratify the Constitution Amendment Bill for GST in August 2016.
1117. Disinvestment means:
A. Increasing fiscal deficit
B. Reducing stake in public sector
C. Selling foreign currency
D. Investment in startups
Answer: B
Explanation: Disinvestment refers to the action of the government or a corporation selling or liquidating an asset or subsidiary. In the context of the Indian economy, it primarily means reducing the government’s equity stake in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
1118. The FRBM Act (2003) is related to:
A. Food distribution
B. Fiscal discipline
C. Rural banking
D. Monetary policy
Answer: B
Explanation: The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act of 2003 was enacted by the Indian Parliament to bring fiscal discipline to the government’s financial management. Its objective was to reduce fiscal deficit and revenue deficit over time.
1119. The NITI Aayog’s CEO (as of 2024) is:
A. Amitabh Kant
B. B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
C. Arvind Panagariya
D. Rajiv Kumar
Answer: B
Explanation: As of 2024 (and having taken office in February 2023), B.V.R. Subrahmanyam is the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of NITI Aayog. Amitabh Kant was his predecessor.
1120. The term “Minimum Government, Maximum Governance” is associated with:
A. UPA Government
B. NITI Aayog
C. NDA Government
D. Swachh Bharat Mission
Answer: C
Explanation: The slogan “Minimum Government, Maximum Governance” has been a key philosophy and policy guiding principle of the NDA Government led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi since 2014, emphasizing efficiency and streamlining of administration.
1121. Swachh Bharat Mission – Urban (SBM-U) is under which Ministry?
A. Rural Development
B. Jal Shakti
C. Housing and Urban Affairs
D. Panchayati Raj
Answer: C
Explanation: The Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) has two components: SBM-Urban and SBM-Gramin. The Swachh Bharat Mission – Urban (SBM-U) is overseen by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. SBM-Gramin is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
1122. The Ayushman Bharat scheme provides health cover up to:
A. ₹2 lakh
B. ₹3 lakh
C. ₹5 lakh
D. ₹10 lakh
Answer: C
Explanation: The Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), a component of the Ayushman Bharat scheme, provides a health cover of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization to over 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable families.
1123. Stand-Up India Scheme is aimed at:
A. Corporates
B. SC/ST and women entrepreneurs
C. Startups
D. PSU reforms
Answer: B
Explanation: The Stand-Up India Scheme, launched in April 2016, aims to promote entrepreneurship among women and Scheduled Castes/Tribes (SC/ST) communities. It facilitates bank loans between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore for setting up greenfield enterprises.
1124. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) targets:
A. Rural housing only
B. Urban poor housing
C. Tribal housing
D. Cooperative housing
Answer: B
Explanation: The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) has two components: PMAY-Urban and PMAY-Gramin. PMAY-Urban specifically targets providing affordable housing to the urban poor by 2022 (extended to 2024 for completion of existing projects).
1125. The Digital India programme was launched in:
A. July 2014
B. August 2014
C. July 2015
D. January 2016
Answer: C
Explanation: The Digital India programme was officially launched by the Government of India on July 1, 2015, with the vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
1126. The Electoral Bonds scheme was introduced in:
A. 2015
B. 2016
C. 2017
D. 2018
Answer: D
Explanation: The Electoral Bonds scheme was introduced by the Government of India through a notification on January 2, 2018. It aimed to streamline political funding. However, the scheme was subsequently struck down by the Supreme Court in February 2024.
1127. The Anti-Defection Law is contained in which schedule?
A. 8th
B. 9th
C. 10th
D. 11th
Answer: C
Explanation: The Anti-Defection Law, which deals with the disqualification of Members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection, is contained in the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. It was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985.
1128. Gram Sabha is a body of:
A. Panchayat members only
B. All adult residents of a village
C. Village elders
D. Only elected representatives
Answer: B
Explanation: A Gram Sabha is the basic unit of the Panchayati Raj system. It is a body consisting of all adult persons (who are registered as voters) residing in the area of a Gram Panchayat. It acts as the village assembly.
1129. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is appointed by:
A. Lok Sabha
B. President
C. Supreme Court
D. Prime Minister
Answer: B
Explanation: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is appointed by the President of India by a warrant under his hand and seal. The CAG is an independent authority and the guardian of the public purse.
1130. RTI Act 2005 empowers citizens to seek info from:
A. Private companies
B. NGOs
C. Public authorities
D. Media houses
Answer: C
Explanation: The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, empowers citizens to secure access to information from public authorities. Public authorities include any body, institution of self-government established or constituted by or under the Constitution, by any other law made by Parliament or State Legislature, or by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government.
1131. The Right to Education Act was passed in:
A. 2002
B. 2005
C. 2009
D. 2010
Answer: C
Explanation: The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2009. It came into force on April 1, 2010.
1132. Which Constitutional Amendment made RTE a Fundamental Right?
A. 42nd
B. 44th
C. 86th
D. 91st
Answer: C
Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 made education a Fundamental Right. It inserted Article 21A, which makes elementary education a fundamental right for children between 6 and 14 years of age.
1133. The Human Development Index (HDI) is released by:
A. World Bank
B. IMF
C. UNDP
D. WTO
Answer: C
Explanation: The Human Development Index (HDI), a summary measure of average achievement in key dimensions of human development (long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living), is released annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in its Human Development Report.
1134. The “Ease of Doing Business Index” is published by:
A. IMF
B. World Bank
C. WTO
D. UNCTAD
Answer: B
Explanation: The “Ease of Doing Business Index,” which ranked countries based on various business regulatory metrics, was published annually by the World Bank Group. Note: The World Bank discontinued the “Doing Business” report series in 2021 due to data irregularities.
1135. The headquarters of WTO is in:
A. New York
B. Geneva
C. Brussels
D. Paris
Answer: B
Explanation: The headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
1136. The World Economic Outlook is published by:
A. IMF
B. World Bank
C. WTO
D. ADB
Answer: A
Explanation: The World Economic Outlook (WEO), a survey by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), is published twice a year (usually in April and October) and provides a comprehensive analysis of global economic developments and projections.
1137. The One District One Product (ODOP) scheme aims to:
A. Promote unique local products
B. Encourage MSMEs
C. Create rural employment
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: The One District One Product (ODOP) initiative, launched by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries, aims to achieve all of the above: promote unique local products, encourage MSMEs (micro, small, and medium enterprises), and create rural employment by leveraging the potential of local products.
1138. PM-KISAN scheme provides income support to:
A. Landless labourers
B. Marginal farmers
C. All farmers
D. Farmers below poverty line
Answer: C
Explanation: The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) scheme provides income support to all landholding farmer families across the country, subject to certain exclusion criteria (e.g., institutional landholders, income tax payees, professionals).
1139. The PM-KUSUM scheme is related to:
A. Fertilizer subsidy
B. Solar power for farmers
C. Soil testing
D. Crop insurance
Answer: B
Explanation: The PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) scheme, launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, aims to provide financial and water security to farmers by enabling them to install solar power pumps and grid-connected solar power plants.
1140. NIPUN Bharat mission targets:
A. Rural nutrition
B. Foundational literacy and numeracy
C. Urban employment
D. Youth skill training
Answer: B
Explanation: The NIPUN (National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy) Bharat Mission was launched in 2021 as a part of the National Education Policy 2020. Its primary target is to ensure that every child achieves foundational literacy and numeracy by the end of Grade 3.
1141. The Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme is under:
A. Ministry of IT
B. Ministry of Agriculture
C. Ministry of Rural Development
D. NITI Aayog
Answer: C
Explanation: The Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP) is implemented by the Department of Land Resources, which falls under the Ministry of Rural Development. Its aim is to computerize and digitize land records.
1142. The Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao campaign was first launched in:
A. Haryana
B. Rajasthan
C. Gujarat
D. Uttar Pradesh
Answer: A
Explanation: The Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao (BBBP) campaign was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi from Panipat, Haryana, on January 22, 2015, due to the alarmingly low Child Sex Ratio (CSR) prevalent in the state.
1143. The DigiLocker is meant for:
A. Digital currency
B. Online tax filing
C. Secure storage of government-issued documents
D. Banking
Answer: C
Explanation: DigiLocker is a flagship initiative under the Digital India program. It provides a dedicated personal digital space for citizens to securely store and access their government-issued documents and certificates, such as driving licenses, Aadhaar, PAN cards, etc.
1144. The National Water Mission is part of which initiative?
A. Skill India
B. National Action Plan on Climate Change
C. Atal Innovation Mission
D. Swachh Bharat
Answer: B
Explanation: The National Water Mission is one of the eight missions under India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Its objective is to conserve water, minimize wastage, and ensure more equitable distribution of water resources.
1145. The Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide:
A. Irrigation to farmers
B. Tap water to all rural households
C. River cleaning
D. Groundwater mapping
Answer: B
Explanation: The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM), launched in 2019, aims to provide safe and adequate drinking water through functional household tap connections (FHTC) to all rural households by 2024.
1146. The Zero Defect Zero Effect (ZED) scheme promotes:
A. Agricultural exports
B. Climate-smart farming
C. Quality manufacturing with environmental safety
D. Railway reform
Answer: C
Explanation: The Zero Defect Zero Effect (ZED) scheme, launched by the Ministry of MSME, promotes manufacturing products with zero defects (flawless products) and having zero environmental effect (no adverse impact on the environment), thus promoting quality manufacturing with environmental safety.
1147. Startup India Seed Fund Scheme supports:
A. Loans to entrepreneurs
B. Grants to early-stage startups
C. Tax exemptions
D. Export subsidies
Answer: B
Explanation: The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS), launched in 2021, aims to provide financial assistance to eligible startups for proof of concept, prototype development, product trials, market-entry, and commercialization. It provides financial support through grants to selected incubators.
1148. The NIRF (National Institutional Ranking Framework) is launched by:
A. UGC
B. AICTE
C. Ministry of Education
D. NAAC
Answer: C
Explanation: The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF), which outlines a methodology to rank institutions across the country, was launched by the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development – MHRD) in 2015.
1149. The E-Shram portal is for:
A. Industrial workers
B. Formal employees
C. Unorganized sector workers
D. Migrant labourers only
Answer: C
Explanation: The E-Shram portal, launched by the Ministry of Labour & Employment, aims to create a national database of unorganized sector workers, including migrant labourers, construction workers, domestic workers, etc. This helps in extending social security benefits to them.
1150. Labour codes passed in recent years consolidate:
A. 17 laws
B. 23 laws
C. 29 laws
D. 44 laws
Answer: D
Explanation: The four new Labour Codes (Code on Wages, Industrial Relations Code, Code on Social Security, and Occupational Safety, Health and and Working Conditions Code) passed by the Indian Parliament aim to simplify and modernize India’s labour laws. They consolidate and replace 44 existing central labour laws. Sources