This set of high-level Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on Political Science is designed to aid your preparation for competitive examinations like UPSC, State Public Service Commissions (PSC), and Combined Graduate Level (CGL) exams. Each question is followed by its correct answer and a concise explanation to deepen your understanding of Indian Polity.
1. The ‘Union Public Service Commission’ is constituted under which Article?
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 321
(D) Article 325
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 315 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Union Public Service Commission and a State Public Service Commission for the Union and for each State respectively. The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a central recruiting agency responsible for conducting examinations for appointments to All India Services and Central Services.
2. The power of the President to issue ordinances is given under –
(A) Article 121
(B) Article 213
(C) Article 123
(D) Article 132
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 123 of the Indian Constitution grants the President the power to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but are temporary in nature and must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of its reassembly.
3. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Federal in nature
(B) Parliamentary system
(C) Presidential system
(D) Independent judiciary
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution establishes a parliamentary system of government, both at the Centre and in the states, not a presidential system. Key features include the presence of nominal and real executives, majority party rule, collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, and an independent judiciary. While India has federal features, it also has unitary features, leading it to be described as “quasi-federal”.
4. Which of the following is not a permanent committee of Parliament?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Advisory Committee on Budget
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Estimates Committee, Public Accounts Committee, and Committee on Public Undertakings are permanent financial committees of the Indian Parliament. The Advisory Committee on Budget is not a permanent parliamentary committee.
5. The residuary powers in India are vested in –
(A) Centre
(B) State
(C) Both
(D) President
Answer: (A)
Explanation: In India, the residuary powers (i.e., powers not enumerated in any of the three lists – Union, State, or Concurrent) are vested with the Centre (Parliament), making the Centre strong. This is unlike the USA, where residuary powers lie with the states.
6. Which schedule lists the official languages?
(A) 6th Schedule
(B) 7th Schedule
(C) 8th Schedule
(D) 9th Schedule
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages of India. Originally, it had 14 languages, but presently there are 22 languages.
7. Which Article gives special status to Scheduled Tribes in Assam?
(A) Article 370
(B) Article 371
(C) Article 371B
(D) Article 372
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 371B of the Indian Constitution makes special provisions with respect to the State of Assam. This includes special provisions for the Scheduled Tribes in Assam.
8. Which committee recommended Panchayati Raj in India?
(A) Balwantrai Mehta
(B) Ashok Mehta
(C) GVK Rao
(D) L.M. Singhvi
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj. This led to the three-tier Panchayati Raj System.
9. The ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ was propounded in –
(A) Golaknath Case
(B) Shankari Prasad Case
(C) Kesavananda Bharati Case
(D) Minerva Mills Case
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). This doctrine limits the amending power of Parliament, stating that Parliament cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution.
10. The President can seek advisory opinion of Supreme Court under –
(A) Article 132
(B) Article 143
(C) Article 136
(D) Article 144
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 143 of the Constitution empowers the President to consult the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact. The Supreme Court’s opinion is advisory and not binding on the President.
11. Which part of the Constitution deals with Emergency Provisions?
(A) Part XVII
(B) Part XVIII
(C) Part XIX
(D) Part XX
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution deals with Emergency Provisions, specifically Articles 352 to 360. These provisions enable the President to handle extraordinary situations effectively, safeguarding the sovereignty, unity, integrity, and security of the country.
12. The term of State Legislative Assembly is –
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) Varies with state
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The normal term of a State Legislative Assembly is five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections.
13. The concept of ‘Secularism’ in the Indian Constitution means –
(A) Absence of religion
(B) Separation of church and state
(C) Equal respect to all religions
(D) No religious education
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Indian concept of ‘Secularism’, as enshrined in the Preamble, signifies equal respect for all religions (Sarva Dharma Sambhava). It doesn’t imply a strict separation or absence of religion, but rather a state that supports and respects all religions equally.
14. The Oath of office to the Governor is administered by –
(A) President
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Chief Justice of High Court
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The oath of office to the Governor is administered by the Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court, or in his absence, the senior-most judge of that High Court.
15. Who acts as the link between the President and the Council of Ministers?
(A) Lok Sabha Speaker
(B) Vice-President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Attorney General
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Prime Minister acts as the principal channel of communication between the President and the Council of Ministers. The Prime Minister keeps the President informed about the decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
16. How many members of the Anglo-Indian community could be nominated to Lok Sabha (before 104th Amendment)?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Before the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, the President could nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if they were not adequately represented.
17. Which Constitutional Amendment Act abolished the Anglo-Indian seat reservation?
(A) 101st
(B) 102nd
(C) 103rd
(D) 104th
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, abolished the reservation of seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
18. The administrative head of a Union Territory is known as –
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Governor
(C) Administrator or Lieutenant Governor
(D) Collector
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A Union Territory is administered by the President through an administrator appointed by him. The administrator is known as Lieutenant Governor in Delhi, Puducherry, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh. In other Union Territories, he is called an Administrator.
19. Which Commission is related to Centre-State relations?
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Mandal Commission
(C) Punchhi Commission
(D) Both A and C
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Both the Sarkaria Commission (1983) and the Punchhi Commission (2007) were established to examine and review the working of Centre-State relations in India. The Mandal Commission was related to reservations for socially and educationally backward classes.
20. ‘Quasi-federal’ is a term used to describe –
(A) USA Constitution
(B) Indian Constitution
(C) UK Constitution
(D) French Constitution
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ by K.C. Wheare because it combines features of both a federal and a unitary system, with a strong centralising tendency.
21. Which of the following is NOT a writ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Locus Standi
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, Prohibition, and Quo-Warranto are the five types of writs that can be issued by the Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Courts (Article 226) for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for other purposes. ‘Locus Standi’ refers to the right or capacity of a party to bring a legal action, and it is not a writ itself.
22. Which Schedule provides for allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha?
(A) First
(B) Fourth
(C) Sixth
(D) Seventh
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to the states and union territories.
23. Which Article empowers Parliament to form new states?
(A) Article 2
(B) Article 3
(C) Article 4
(D) Article 1
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state. It also allows for increasing or diminishing the area of any state, and altering the boundaries or names of any state.
24. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty?
(A) Respect the Constitution
(B) Uphold sovereignty
(C) Pay taxes
(D) Develop scientific temper
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Fundamental Duties, enshrined in Part IVA (Article 51A) of the Constitution, include respecting the Constitution, upholding sovereignty, and developing scientific temper. Paying taxes is a legal obligation but not explicitly listed as a Fundamental Duty.
25. What is the minimum age for a person to be appointed as Governor?
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 40 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: To be eligible for appointment as Governor, a person must be a citizen of India and have completed 35 years of age.
26. The first state to implement Panchayati Raj was –
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Maharashtra
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Rajasthan was the first state to implement the Panchayati Raj system. It was inaugurated by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on October 2, 1959, in Nagaur district of Rajasthan.
27. The President can nominate members to –
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Both
(D) None
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Before the 104th Amendment, the President could nominate 2 members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha. The President can still nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service.
28. The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated in the year –
(A) 1947
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1952
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on January 28, 1950, two days after the Constitution came into force.
29. The main objective of the Preamble is to –
(A) Grant citizenship
(B) Outline structure of government
(C) Declare goals and ideals of the Constitution
(D) Define powers of judiciary
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Preamble to the Indian Constitution serves as an introduction and outlines the goals, aspirations, and ideals of the Constitution, such as Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity.
30. The first woman Governor of independent India was –
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(C) Sucheta Kripalani
(D) Indira Gandhi
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Sarojini Naidu was the first woman Governor of an Indian state (Uttar Pradesh) in independent India.
31. Which Amendment removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 52nd
(D) 61st
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right (Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31) and made it a legal right under Article 300A.
32. What is the minimum age to contest elections for Rajya Sabha?
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 35
(D) 21
Answer: (B)
Explanation: To be qualified for election to the Rajya Sabha, a person must be not less than 30 years of age. For Lok Sabha, it is 25 years.
33. The Prime Minister is appointed by –
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Rajya Sabha
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. The President appoints the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.
34. Which Article gives power to the Parliament to amend the Constitution?
(A) 360
(B) 368
(C) 370
(D) 371
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.
35. What is the tenure of the Finance Commission?
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) 10 years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Finance Commission is constituted by the President every five years (or earlier if necessary) to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states, and the grants-in-aid to the states.
36. The office of Lokpal was established under –
(A) 73rd Amendment
(B) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 91st Amendment
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The office of Lokpal was established by the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, to inquire into allegations of corruption against public functionaries.
37. The Constitution describes India as –
(A) Federation
(B) Union of States
(C) Confederation
(D) Parliamentary Union
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 1 of the Constitution declares India as a “Union of States,” which implies that the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states, and the states have no right to secede from the federation.
38. Who is known as the ‘Father of the Indian Constitution’?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is widely regarded as the chief architect or ‘Father of the Indian Constitution’ due to his pivotal role as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
39. The Constituent Assembly was formed in –
(A) 1945
(B) 1946
(C) 1947
(D) 1948
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly of India was formed in November 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan to draft the Constitution of India.
40. Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(A) G.V. Mavalankar
(B) Hukum Singh
(C) Balram Jakhar
(D) P.A. Sangma
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha from 1952 to 1956.
41. Article 370 granted special status to –
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Jammu & Kashmir
(D) Mizoram
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 370 of the Constitution of India granted special autonomous status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. This article was abrogated in August 2019.
42. Which Article provides for Grants-in-Aid to states?
(A) Article 270
(B) Article 275
(C) Article 280
(D) Article 286
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 275 of the Constitution provides for grants-in-aid to certain states by the Parliament. These grants are primarily given to assist states in meeting their developmental needs and to balance inter-state financial disparities.
43. The term ‘Cabinet’ is mentioned in Article –
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 352
(D) Article 77
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The term ‘Cabinet’ was inserted into Article 352 (National Emergency) by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978. It states that the President can declare a National Emergency only on the written recommendation of the Cabinet.
44. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, and his decision on this matter is conclusive.
45. The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for –
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years or till age 65
(D) No fixed tenure
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
46. A law made by Parliament on a subject in the State List is valid during –
(A) Ordinary times
(B) Emergency
(C) Financial instability
(D) President’s Rule
Answer: (B)
Explanation: During a National Emergency (Article 352), the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the State List.
47. Which commission examines the condition of backward classes?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) National Commission for Backward Classes
(D) National Human Rights Commission
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a constitutional body established under Article 338B to examine the complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes.
48. The ‘Doctrine of Separation of Powers’ is more rigid in –
(A) UK
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Canada
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The doctrine of separation of powers is more rigidly followed in the USA, where there is a clear distinction between the executive, legislative, and judicial branches, each with its own separate powers and functions. In contrast, India follows a parliamentary system with a more integrated approach.
49. Which Article empowers the President to declare Emergency?
(A) 352
(B) 356
(C) 360
(D) 368 Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 352 empowers the President to declare a National Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
50. Which Article empowers the High Court to issue writs?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 136
(C) Article 226
(D) Article 124 Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 226 empowers the High Courts to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo-Warranto) for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose. Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs.