Indian History – UPSC MCQ Series (Set 21)

Welcome to “Set 21” of our “Indian History – UPSC MCQ Series”! This comprehensive set delves into a myriad of topics, from the intellectual and revolutionary currents of the Indian freedom struggle to the foundational principles of the Indian Constitution and key aspects of modern India’s economic framework. Explore questions on iconic slogans and influential personalities, seminal books, and the establishment of significant socio-religious and political organizations. Beyond history, challenge your knowledge of Indian Polity and Economy, covering constitutional articles, economic policies, and contemporary government initiatives. This set offers a holistic preparation for UPSC aspirants, integrating diverse facets of India’s past and present.

Set 21

1001. Who coined the slogan “Inquilab Zindabad”?

A. Bhagat Singh

B. Subhas Chandra Bose

C. Iqbal

D. Hasrat Mohani

Answer: D

Explanation: The slogan “Inquilab Zindabad” (Long Live the Revolution) was coined by Maulana Hasrat Mohani, an Indian freedom fighter, poet, and leader of the Communist Party of India. It was later popularized by Bhagat Singh and his Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in the late 1920s.

1002. The “Drain of Wealth” theory was given by:

A. M.G. Ranade

B. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

C. Dadabhai Naoroji

D. R.C. Dutt

Answer: C

Explanation: The “Drain of Wealth” theory, which argued that British rule was continuously draining India’s wealth and resources to Britain without adequate returns, was prominently propounded by Dadabhai Naoroji, often referred to as the “Grand Old Man of India.”

1003. The book “Un-British Rule in India” was written by:

A. Tilak

B. R.C. Dutt

C. D.N. Wacha

D. M.N. Roy

Answer: B

Explanation: While the most famous work directly discussing the “un-British” nature of British rule and its economic impact is “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India” by Dadabhai Naoroji, Romesh Chunder Dutt (R.C. Dutt) was another pioneering economic historian of India. His two-volume work, “The Economic History of India under Early British Rule” (1902) and “The Economic History of India in the Victorian Age” (1904), thoroughly analyzed the economic exploitation of India by the British, detailing how British policies led to the impoverishment of the country. Thus, he significantly contributed to the understanding of the ‘un-British’ impact of colonial rule.

1004. “Hind Swaraj” was published in:

A. 1905

B. 1907

C. 1909

D. 1911

Answer: C

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi’s influential book “Hind Swaraj” or “Indian Home Rule” was written in 1909 during his return voyage from England to South Africa and was published in 1909. It articulated his views on Swaraj, modern civilization, and the means of achieving independence.

1005. Who founded the Servants of India Society?

A. Tilak

B. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

C. Dadabhai Naoroji

D. A.O. Hume

Answer: B

Explanation: The Servants of India Society was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905 in Pune, Maharashtra. Its aim was to train nationalist workers dedicated to the service of the country.

1006. The Ramakrishna Mission was established by:

A. Ramakrishna Paramahamsa

B. Keshab Chandra Sen

C. Swami Vivekananda

D. Dayananda Saraswati

Answer: C

Explanation: The Ramakrishna Mission was established by Swami Vivekananda in 1897 in Belur Math, near Kolkata. It was founded to carry out humanitarian and social service activities based on the teachings of his guru, Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.

1007. Vivekananda’s Chicago Speech was delivered in:

A. 1891

B. 1892

C. 1893

D. 1894

Answer: C

Explanation: Swami Vivekananda delivered his famous speech at the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago on September 11, 1893, which introduced Hinduism to the Western world.

1008. The first Indian to win Nobel Prize was:

A. C.V. Raman

B. Amartya Sen

C. Rabindranath Tagore

D. Mother Teresa

Answer: C

Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian (and first non-European) to win a Nobel Prize. He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for his profoundly sensitive, fresh, and beautiful verse, especially for his collection “Gitanjali.”

1009. Who called Rabindranath Tagore the “Gurudev”?

A. Nehru

B. Gandhi

C. Tilak

D. Aurobindo

Answer: B

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi referred to Rabindranath Tagore as “Gurudev,” a title reflecting deep respect for Tagore’s spiritual and intellectual wisdom. Tagore, in turn, conferred the title of ‘Mahatma’ upon Gandhi.

1010. The Anandmath novel was written by:

A. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

B. Dwijendranath Tagore

C. Bipin Chandra Pal

D. Dinabandhu Mitra

Answer: A

Explanation: The Bengali novel “Anandmath,” which depicted the Sanyasi Rebellion and contained the song ‘Vande Mataram’, was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1882.

1011. “Sujalam Sufalam” is part of which national symbol?

A. Emblem

B. Anthem

C. Motto

D. Song

Answer: D

Explanation: The lines “Sujalam, Sufalam, Malayajashitalam, Shasyashyamalam, Mataram!” (meaning “well-watered, well-fruited, cool with the winds of the Malaya mountains, dark with the harvests, O Mother!”) are an integral part of India’s National Song, Vande Mataram.

1012. The largest source of revenue for the Indian government currently is:

A. Income Tax

B. Corporate Tax

C. GST

D. Excise Duty

Answer: C

Explanation: As per recent trends and government data (including budget estimates for 2024-25), Goods and Services Tax (GST) has emerged as the single largest source of revenue for the Indian government, surpassing both corporate tax and income tax collections.

1013. The term “Minimum Support Price” (MSP) is associated with:

A. Industrial growth

B. Foreign investment

C. Agricultural procurement

D. Wage regulation

Answer: C

Explanation: The term “Minimum Support Price (MSP)” is a government intervention policy primarily associated with agricultural procurement. It is a price fixed by the Government of India to protect the producer (farmer) against excessive falls in price during bumper production years, ensuring a minimum profit for the farmer.

1014. The base year for calculating India’s current GDP series (as of 2024) is:

A. 2004–05

B. 2011–12

C. 2014–15

D. 2017–18

Answer: B

Explanation: The current base year for calculating India’s GDP (Gross Domestic Product) series was revised by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in January 2015. This base year remains in use as of 2024.

1015. Which article empowers Parliament to create new states?

A. Article 2

B. Article 3

C. Article 4

D. Article 5

Answer: B

Explanation: Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to form new states by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state, increase/diminish the area of any state, or alter the boundaries or names of any state. Article 2 deals with the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of India.

1016. The Concept of “Republic” in the Indian Constitution means:

A. Popular sovereignty

B. Elected head of state

C. Parliamentary democracy

D. Separation of powers

Answer: B

Explanation: The term “Republic” in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution signifies that the head of the state (the President) is elected by the people, directly or indirectly, and is not a hereditary monarch.

1017. Finance Commission is constituted under:

A. Article 265

B. Article 270

C. Article 280

D. Article 282

Answer: C

Explanation: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India. It is constituted every five years by the President to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and among the States.

1018. The Attorney General of India is appointed by:

A. Supreme Court

B. Lok Sabha

C. President

D. Prime Minister

Answer: C

Explanation: The Attorney General of India, the highest law officer in the country, is appointed by the President of India.

1019. Which Fundamental Right cannot be suspended during Emergency?

A. Freedom of speech

B. Protection in respect of conviction

C. Right to equality

D. Right to life

Answer: D

Explanation: According to Article 359 of the Indian Constitution, during a National Emergency, the President can suspend the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights except those guaranteed by Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty). Among the given options, “Right to life” (Article 21) cannot be suspended.

1020. Article 32 is also known as:

A. Right to equality

B. Heart and soul of the Constitution

C. Directive Principle

D. Rule of law

Answer: B

Explanation: Article 32, which guarantees the right to constitutional remedies (allowing citizens to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights), was famously referred to as the “heart and soul of the Constitution” by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

1021. The Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is:

A. President

B. Prime Minister

C. Vice President

D. Chief Justice of India

Answer: C

Explanation: The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), the upper house of the Indian Parliament.

1022. The money bill can be introduced only in:

A. Rajya Sabha

B. Lok Sabha

C. Either house

D. Joint session

Answer: B

Explanation: A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People), the lower house of the Indian Parliament. The Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding Money Bills and cannot reject or amend them.

1023. The “Concurrent List” contains subjects on which:

A. Only states can legislate

B. Only Parliament can legislate

C. Both Centre and states can legislate

D. Judiciary can legislate

Answer: C

Explanation: The Concurrent List (Seventh Schedule, Article 246) in the Indian Constitution contains subjects on which both the Parliament (Centre) and the State Legislatures can legislate. In case of a conflict, the law made by Parliament generally prevails.

1024. The total number of Schedules in the Constitution (2024) is:

A. 10

B. 11

C. 12

D. 14

Answer: C

Explanation: Originally, the Constitution of India had 8 Schedules. However, through subsequent amendments, the number has increased. As of 2024, there are 12 Schedules in the Indian Constitution.

1025. The Right to Information (RTI) Act was passed in:

A. 2002

B. 2005

C. 2006

D. 2008

Answer: B

Explanation: The Right to Information (RTI) Act was enacted by the Parliament of India and came into force on October 12, 2005. It empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities.

1026. Which Article guarantees protection of monuments?

A. Article 49

B. Article 50

C. Article 51

D. Article 52

Answer: A

Explanation: Article 49 of the Indian Constitution, which falls under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), states that “It shall be the obligation of the State to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest, declared by or under law made by Parliament to be of national importance, from spoliation, disfigurement, destruction, removal, disposal or export, as the case may be.”

1027. The Mandal Commission report was implemented in:

A. 1980

B. 1990

C. 1992

D. 1995

Answer: B

Explanation: The recommendations of the Mandal Commission report, which proposed 27% reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in central government jobs, were implemented by the V.P. Singh government in 1990.

1028. The first woman judge of Supreme Court of India was:

A. Fathima Beevi

B. Leila Seth

C. Ruma Pal

D. Indira Banerjee

Answer: A

Explanation: Justice M. Fathima Beevi made history by becoming the first woman judge appointed to the Supreme Court of India in 1989.

1029. The minimum voting age in India was reduced from 21 to 18 by which Amendment?

A. 42nd

B. 44th

C. 61st

D. 69th

Answer: C

Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1989 reduced the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.

1030. The primary body to recommend disqualification of MPs/MLAs under defection is:

A. Supreme Court

B. President

C. Election Commission

D. Speaker/Chairman

Answer: D

Explanation: Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-defection Law) of the Constitution, the final authority to decide on questions of disqualification of a member of a House on grounds of defection is the presiding officer of the House concerned, i.e., the Speaker in the Lok Sabha and the Chairman in the Rajya Sabha (or the corresponding presiding officers in state legislatures).

1031. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is governed under which Article?

A. Article 246

B. Article 269A

C. Article 270A

D. Article 271

Answer: B

Explanation: While Article 246A grants the power to Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws with respect to GST, Article 269A specifically deals with the levy and collection of Goods and Services Tax in inter-state trade or commerce, stating that it shall be levied and collected by the Government of India and such tax shall be apportioned between the Union and the States as per Parliament’s recommendations.

1032. The Constitution (Amendment) Bill can be introduced in:

A. Lok Sabha only

B. Rajya Sabha only

C. Either house of Parliament

D. President only

Answer: C

Explanation: A Bill for the amendment of the Constitution can be introduced in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha). It does not require prior recommendation of the President (except in cases of certain financial matters).

1033. The term “Union of States” is mentioned in:

A. Preamble

B. Article 1

C. Article 3

D. Article 5

Answer: B

Explanation: Article 1 of the Constitution of India explicitly states: “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” This signifies that India is not a result of an agreement among states and states have no right to secede from the Union.

1034. The institution of Lokpal was recommended by:

A. Kothari Commission

B. First ARC

C. Niti Aayog

D. Second ARC

Answer: B

Explanation: The concept of an ombudsman-like institution to check corruption in public administration, which led to the eventual establishment of the Lokpal, was first recommended in India by the First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) in 1966, headed by Morarji Desai.

1035. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment is related to:

A. Cooperative Societies

B. Urban Local Bodies

C. Panchayati Raj

D. Electoral Reforms

Answer: C

Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions, introducing a three-tier system of local self-governance in rural areas.

1036. Which committee recommended three-tier Panchayati Raj?

A. Balwantrai Mehta

B. Ashok Mehta

C. G.V.K. Rao

D. L.M. Singhvi

Answer: A

Explanation: The Balwantrai Mehta Committee, appointed in 1957, recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system: Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Zila Parishad at the district level.

1037. India’s National Income is estimated primarily by:

A. RBI

B. NITI Aayog

C. CSO (now NSO)

D. Ministry of Finance

Answer: C

Explanation: The estimation of National Income in India is primarily carried out by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO), which is now part of the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

1038. The term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ was coined by:

A. Amartya Sen

B. Raj Krishna

C. Raghuram Rajan

D. Bimal Jalan

Answer: B

Explanation: The term “Hindu rate of growth” was coined by the Indian economist Raj Krishna in 1978. It referred to the low annual growth rate of the Indian economy (around 3.5% from the 1950s to the 1980s) before economic reforms.

1039. The first Industrial Policy of independent India was launched in:

A. 1947

B. 1948

C. 1951

D. 1956

Answer: B

Explanation: The first Industrial Policy Statement of independent India was presented on April 6, 1948, by the then Industry Minister, Dr. Shyama Prasad Mookerjee. It laid the foundation for India’s mixed economy.

1040. The 12th Five-Year Plan (2012–17) focused on:

A. Agriculture

B. Industrial growth

C. Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth

D. Population control

Answer: C

Explanation: The 12th Five-Year Plan (2012–2017) had its central theme as “Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth.”

1041. The UDAY scheme is associated with:

A. Rural education

B. Banking

C. Power distribution companies

D. Water conservation

Answer: C

Explanation: The UDAY (Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana) scheme, launched by the Government of India in 2015, is specifically aimed at the financial turnaround and revival of Power Distribution Companies (DISCOMs).

1042. Skill India Mission was launched in:

A. 2014

B. 2015

C. 2016

D. 2017

Answer: B

Explanation: The Skill India Mission (also known as National Skill Development Mission) was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on July 15, 2015, to create convergence across various skill training initiatives and achieve the vision of ‘Skilled India’.

1043. The Startup India action plan was launched by:

A. President

B. Finance Minister

C. Prime Minister

D. RBI Governor

Answer: C

Explanation: The Startup India action plan was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on January 16, 2016, to promote entrepreneurship and support startups in India.

1044. Make in India primarily aims at:

A. Import substitution

B. Export focus

C. Manufacturing boost

D. Services sector expansion

Answer: C

Explanation: The Make in India campaign, launched in 2014, primarily aims to transform India into a global design and manufacturing hub, encouraging both domestic and foreign companies to manufacture their products in India.

1045. SEZs (Special Economic Zones) are regulated by:

A. RBI

B. Ministry of Finance

C. Ministry of Commerce

D. SEBI

Answer: C

Explanation: Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India are regulated and administered by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, which frames the policies and rules for these zones.

1046. FDI in India is permitted under:

A. Automatic route

B. Government route

C. Both A and B

D. Only government route

Answer: C

Explanation: Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India is permitted under both the Automatic Route and the Government Route. Under the Automatic Route, no prior government approval is required, while under the Government Route, prior approval from the government is necessary.

1047. The Repo Rate is:

A. Rate at which banks borrow from RBI

B. Rate RBI borrows from banks

C. Rate for home loans

D. Inflation control tool

Answer: A

Explanation: The Repo Rate is the interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) provides short-term loans to commercial banks. It is a key monetary policy tool used by the RBI to control inflation and manage liquidity in the economy.

1048. RBI was nationalized in:

A. 1935

B. 1947

C. 1949

D. 1951

Answer: C

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established in 1935. It was nationalized on January 1, 1949, bringing it under the full ownership of the Government of India.

1049. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has how many members?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 4

Answer: B

Explanation: The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) in India consists of six members: three officials from the Reserve Bank of India (including the Governor) and three external members nominated by the Government of India.

1050. The chairperson of the Monetary Policy Committee is:

A. Finance Minister

B. RBI Governor

C. NITI Aayog Vice-Chairman

D. Chief Economic Adviser

Answer: B

Explanation: The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).

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