Welcome to “Set 18” of our “Indian History – UPSC MCQ Series”! This set is meticulously crafted to assess your understanding of pivotal moments in India’s freedom struggle and the foundational aspects of its post-independence polity. Delve into questions covering the Gandhian era, including key movements like Non-Cooperation and Quit India, and significant events that shaped the nationalist narrative. This set also extensively explores the drafting and implementation of the Indian Constitution, focusing on its core features such as Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and the roles of key constitutional bodies and offices. Test your knowledge on landmark amendments, judicial pronouncements, and the evolution of parliamentary democracy in India. Prepare to refine your grasp of modern Indian history and its constitutional bedrock.
Set 18
851. The Chauri Chaura incident occurred in:
A. 1920
B. 1921
C. 1922
D. 1923
Answer: C
Explanation: The Chauri Chaura incident took place on February 4, 1922, in the Chauri Chaura village of Uttar Pradesh. A violent clash between protestors and the police led to the death of several policemen, prompting Mahatma Gandhi to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement.
852. Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in response to:
A. Rowlatt Act
B. Jallianwala Bagh massacre
C. Khilafat issue
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: The Non-Cooperation Movement, launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920, was a nationwide protest movement that emerged in response to a culmination of grievances. These included the repressive Rowlatt Act (A), the brutal Jallianwala Bagh massacre (B), and the British government’s stance on the Khilafat issue (C), which deeply hurt Muslim sentiments in India. All these factors collectively fueled the movement.
853. The Ali brothers were leaders of:
A. Muslim League
B. Khilafat Movement
C. Indian National Army
D. Wahabi Movement
Answer: B
Explanation: Maulana Mohammad Ali Jauhar and Maulana Shaukat Ali, popularly known as the Ali brothers, were prominent leaders of the Khilafat Movement. They collaborated closely with Mahatma Gandhi during the initial phase of the Non-Cooperation Movement, advocating for the restoration of the Ottoman Caliphate.
854. Who described the Khilafat Movement as “communal in origin”?
A. Ambedkar
B. Nehru
C. Tilak
D. Tagore
Answer: A
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was critical of the Khilafat Movement, viewing it primarily as a religious movement with communal overtones that diverted attention from the real issues of social reform and political rights within India. He explicitly described it as “communal in origin.”
855. The first mass agitation led by Gandhi in India was:
A. Kheda Satyagraha
B. Champaran Movement
C. Ahmedabad Mill Strike
D. Non-Cooperation Movement
Answer: D
Explanation: While Champaran (1917), Kheda (1918), and the Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918) were significant local satyagrahas led by Gandhi, the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22) was his first truly mass-based, all-India agitation. It involved widespread participation from various sections of society across the country, making it the first large-scale national movement under his leadership. The Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919) was the first all-India protest, but the Non-Cooperation Movement encompassed a wider range of methods and sustained participation.
856. The slogan “Do or Die” was associated with which movement?
A. Non-Cooperation
B. Civil Disobedience
C. Quit India
D. Home Rule
Answer: C
Explanation: The powerful slogan “Do or Die” (Karenge Ya Marenge) was given by Mahatma Gandhi on August 8, 1942, during his address to the All-India Congress Committee session in Bombay, initiating the Quit India Movement.
857. The Wardha Scheme of Basic Education (1937) was introduced under the guidance of:
A. Gandhi
B. Tagore
C. Nehru
D. Gokhale
Answer: A
Explanation: The Wardha Scheme of Basic Education (1937), also known as ‘Nai Talim’ or New Education, was based on the educational ideas of Mahatma Gandhi. It emphasized learning through productive and socially useful work (craft-centered education) to achieve self-sufficiency and holistic development.
858. The first Round Table Conference was held in:
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1931
D. 1932
Answer: B
Explanation: The First Round Table Conference was held in London from November 1930 to January 1931. It was convened by the British government to discuss future constitutional reforms in India. The Indian National Congress boycotted this conference.
859. Communal Award (1932) was announced by:
A. Lord Irwin
B. Ramsay MacDonald
C. Winston Churchill
D. Stafford Cripps
Answer: B
Explanation: The Communal Award, which provided for separate electorates for minorities, including Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, Europeans, and depressed classes (Dalits), was announced by the British Prime Minister, Ramsay MacDonald, on August 16, 1932.
860. The British Prime Minister during Quit India Movement was:
A. Churchill
B. Ramsay MacDonald
C. Atlee
D. Chamberlain
Answer: A
Explanation: Winston Churchill was the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom during World War II and, therefore, was the British Prime Minister when the Quit India Movement was launched in 1942.
861. The Congress Socialist Party was founded in:
A. 1932
B. 1933
C. 1934
D. 1935
Answer: C
Explanation: The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was formed in 1934 within the Indian National Congress. Its founders included prominent leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev, and Minoo Masani, who advocated for a socialist ideological path within the nationalist movement.
862. The Forward Bloc was founded by:
A. Nehru
B. Subhas Chandra Bose
C. Lala Lajpat Rai
D. Bhagat Singh
Answer: B
Explanation: The Forward Bloc was a left-wing political party formed in 1939 by Subhas Chandra Bose after he resigned from the presidency of the Indian National Congress due to ideological differences with Mahatma Gandhi.
863. The August Offer (1940) was rejected by:
A. Muslim League
B. Congress
C. Hindu Mahasabha
D. All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: The August Offer of 1940, proposed by Viceroy Linlithgow, offered Dominion Status as the long-term goal, expansion of the Viceroy’s Executive Council, and the establishment of a constituent assembly after the war. The Indian National Congress (B) rejected it primarily because it did not offer immediate independence or a truly representative national government. The Muslim League also rejected it as it did not explicitly guarantee the creation of Pakistan.
864. The Cripps Mission (1942) was rejected by:
A. Congress
B. Muslim League
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: The Cripps Mission of 1942 proposals were rejected by both the Indian National Congress (A) and the Muslim League (B). The Congress found the offer of Dominion status post-war inadequate and opposed the provision for princely states to opt out. The Muslim League rejected it because it did not explicitly guarantee the creation of Pakistan.
865. The INA trials took place in:
A. 1944
B. 1945
C. 1946
D. 1947
Answer: C
Explanation: The famous Indian National Army (INA) trials, involving officers of Subhas Chandra Bose’s INA charged with treason, were held at the Red Fort in Delhi, predominantly in 1945 and 1946. The main public trial occurred in November 1945, with subsequent trials extending into 1946. Hence, 1946 is the most appropriate answer as it covers the major period of these trials.
866. The Interim Government (1946) had which of the following portfolios under Nehru?
A. External Affairs and Commonwealth
B. Home Affairs
C. Defense
D. Finance
Answer: A
Explanation: In the Interim Government of 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru held the key portfolios of External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations. He also served as the Vice-President of the Executive Council.
867. The Constituent Assembly met for the first time on:
A. 15 August 1947
B. 26 January 1946
C. 9 December 1946
D. 26 November 1946
Answer: C
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly of India held its first meeting on December 9, 1946, in the Constitution Hall (now the Central Hall of Parliament House), New Delhi.
868. The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A. 15 August 1947
B. 26 January 1950
C. 26 November 1949
D. 1 January 1950
Answer: C
Explanation: The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949. It was then formally enacted and came into full force on January 26, 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day.
869. The First Speaker of Lok Sabha was:
A. M.A. Ayyangar
B. G.V. Mavalankar
C. B.R. Ambedkar
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer: B
Explanation: Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar, popularly known as Dadasaheb Mavalankar, served as the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha (the House of the People) from 1952 until his death in 1956.
870. The word “Republic” in the Preamble indicates:
A. Head of State is elected
B. Head of State is hereditary
C. People’s rule
D. Rule of law
Answer: A
Explanation: The term “Republic” in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution signifies that the Head of the State (the President) is an elected person, chosen for a fixed term, rather than a hereditary monarch. This contrasts with a monarchy where the head of state inherits the position.
871. The number of Schedules in the original Constitution was:
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: A
Explanation: At the time of its adoption on November 26, 1949, the original Constitution of India had 8 Schedules. Over time, four more schedules have been added through constitutional amendments, bringing the total to 12.
872. The Fundamental Duties were added by which amendment?
A. 42nd
B. 44th
C. 52nd
D. 61st
Answer: A
Explanation: The Fundamental Duties (Part IVA, Article 51A) were incorporated into the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
873. The Constitution provides how many Fundamental Rights?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Answer: A
Explanation: The Constitution of India currently provides for 6 Fundamental Rights. Originally, there were 7 Fundamental Rights, but the Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.
874. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is covered under:
A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 32
D. Article 14
Answer: C
Explanation: The Right to Constitutional Remedies is guaranteed under Article 32 of the Constitution. This article empowers citizens to move the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights, making Fundamental Rights effective and enforceable. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called it the “heart and soul of the Constitution.”
875. Which Article declares India a secular state?
A. Article 15
B. Article 14
C. Preamble
D. Article 25
Answer: C
Explanation: While various articles (like 14, 15, 25-28) reflect the secular character of the Indian state, the term “Secular” was explicitly added to the Preamble of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. The Preamble is the introductory statement that declares India to be a secular republic.
876. Directive Principles of State Policy are:
A. Enforceable by court
B. Non-enforceable
C. Only for Parliament
D. Meant for judges
Answer: B
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are fundamental in the governance of the country and are meant to guide the state in policy-making, but they are non-enforceable by any court of law. This means a person cannot go to court to compel the government to implement a DPSP.
877. The concept of DPSP was borrowed from:
A. USA
B. UK
C. Ireland
D. USSR
Answer: C
Explanation: The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution (Part IV) was inspired by and borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
878. The President can proclaim Emergency under Article:
A. 350
B. 356
C. 360
D. 352
Answer: D
Explanation: The President of India can proclaim a National Emergency on grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion (originally internal disturbance) under Article 352 of the Constitution. Article 356 deals with President’s Rule in states, and Article 360 deals with Financial Emergency.
879. The Emergency due to internal disturbance was declared in:
A. 1965
B. 1971
C. 1975
D. 1977
Answer: C
Explanation: The National Emergency based on grounds of “internal disturbance” was declared by President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed on the advice of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi on June 25, 1975.
880. The Anti-Defection Law was introduced in:
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 52nd Amendment
D. 86th Amendment
Answer: C
Explanation: The Anti-Defection Law was incorporated into the Indian Constitution by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985. It added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, specifying the grounds for disqualification of Members of Parliament and State Legislatures on grounds of defection.
881. Which article provides for Panchayati Raj?
A. Article 40
B. Article 243
C. Article 246
D. Article 256
Answer: B
Explanation: While Article 40 (a DPSP) mentions the organization of village panchayats, it is Article 243 (and its sub-parts 243A to 243O, introduced by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992) that comprehensively provides for the structure, powers, and responsibilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions in India.
882. The Finance Commission is appointed every:
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 10 years
Answer: B
Explanation: The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body constituted by the President of India every five years (or earlier if necessary) under Article 280 of the Constitution. Its main function is to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States.
883. The First Finance Commission was headed by:
A. K.C. Neogy
B. V.K.R.V. Rao
C. Y.V. Reddy
D. C. Rangarajan
Answer: A
Explanation: The First Finance Commission of India was constituted in 1951 and was headed by K.C. Neogy.
884. The Supreme Court of India was established in:
A. 1947
B. 1950
C. 1952
D. 1956
Answer: B
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated and began functioning on January 28, 1950, two days after India became a Republic. It succeeded the Federal Court of India, which had been established under the Government of India Act of 1935.
885. The Judicial Review power is derived from:
A. Article 13
B. Article 21
C. Article 19
D. Article 356
Answer: A
Explanation: The power of Judicial Review in India primarily stems from Article 13 of the Constitution. Article 13(2) states that any law inconsistent with or in derogation of Fundamental Rights shall be void. This provides the Supreme Court and High Courts the power to declare a law unconstitutional if it violates Fundamental Rights.
886. The right to vote in India is:
A. Fundamental Right
B. Constitutional Right
C. Legal Right
D. Natural Right
Answer: C
Explanation: The right to vote in India is primarily a Legal Right (or statutory right), as it is provided for by statutes such as the Representation of the People Act, 1951, although it is based on the constitutional provision of adult suffrage (Article 326). It is not considered a Fundamental Right.
887. The Right to Privacy was declared as Fundamental Right in:
A. Golaknath Case
B. Kesavananda Bharati Case
C. Puttaswamy Case
D. Shah Bano Case
Answer: C
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India, in a landmark judgment in the K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union of India case in 2017, unanimously declared the Right to Privacy as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution, thus making it a Fundamental Right.
888. The Election Commission is a:
A. Statutory body
B. Constitutional body
C. Executive body
D. Judicial body
Answer: B
Explanation: The Election Commission of India is a Constitutional body. It is established by Article 324 of the Constitution, which vests in it the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President.
889. The first Chief Election Commissioner of India was:
A. T.N. Seshan
B. Sukumar Sen
C. K.V.K. Sundaram
D. M.S. Gill
Answer: B
Explanation: Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India, serving from March 21, 1950, to December 19, 1958. He played a crucial role in organizing India’s first two general elections.
890. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to:
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Parliament
D. Lok Sabha
Answer: D
Explanation: As per Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (House of the People). This means that the entire Council of Ministers stands or falls together; if a no-confidence motion is passed against any minister or the Council, the entire government has to resign.
891. The Vice-President is elected by:
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Electoral college (LS + RS)
D. Both Parliament and State Assemblies
Answer: C
Explanation: The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. State Assemblies do not participate in the Vice-President’s election.
892. The minimum age for President of India is:
A. 30
B. 35
C. 40
D. 25
Answer: B
Explanation: To be eligible for election as the President of India, a person must have completed the age of 35 years.
893. The first woman governor of a state in independent India was:
A. Fathima Beevi
B. Sarojini Naidu
C. Pratibha Patil
D. Indira Gandhi
Answer: B
Explanation: Sarojini Naidu, famously known as the “Nightingale of India,” was the first woman to become the Governor of an Indian state. She served as the Governor of Uttar Pradesh from 1947 to 1949.
894. The Rajya Sabha is a:
A. Permanent body
B. Temporary body
C. Advisory body
D. Judicial body
Answer: A
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. Its members serve a six-year term, with one-third of them retiring every two years, ensuring continuity.
895. The Money Bill is defined in which article?
A. Article 110
B. Article 112
C. Article 266
D. Article 360
Answer: A
Explanation: A Money Bill is defined in Article 110 of the Indian Constitution. It specifies the matters that can be included in a Money Bill, such as taxation, government borrowings, and expenditure.
**896. The Prime Minister is mentioned in the Constitution under Article: **
A. 73
B. 75
C. 78
D. 85
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 75 of the Indian Constitution states that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. It also deals with the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers.
897. The Inter-State Council is established under Article:
A. 263
B. 256
C. 280
D. 312
Answer: A
Explanation: The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body established under Article 263 of the Constitution. Its purpose is to inquire into and advise upon disputes between states, investigate matters of common interest, and recommend policies for better coordination.
898. President’s Rule can be imposed under:
A. Article 356
B. Article 360
C. Article 352
D. Article 365
Answer: A
Explanation: President’s Rule (also known as State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency) can be imposed in a state by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution, usually when the constitutional machinery of a state breaks down. Article 365 also allows for President’s Rule if a state fails to comply with or give effect to any directions from the Union. However, Article 356 is the primary article for this.
899. The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in:
A. Jan 2014
B. Jan 2015
C. Jan 2016
D. Jan 2017
Answer: B
Explanation: The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) by a resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015.
900. The First Law Minister of India was:
A. Nehru
B. Sardar Patel
C. Ambedkar
D. Rajendra Prasad
Answer: C
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Indian Constitution, served as the first Law Minister of independent India in Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru’s cabinet. Sources